Hey, guys. I have a question regarding the revolution of the proletariat that Marx/Engels describe.
In the modern sense, would it be more desirable for these revolutions to occur in the developing (i.e. "Third World") before spreading to the developed countries, or should revolution begin in the developed countries?
The reason I ask is because revolution seems unlikely in the US and the UK at this point in time, but the conditions are ripe in such countries as Nepal and Kyrgyzstan.
Thanks.
Liberate our minds--by any means necessary.