Is it then wrong to identify different currents of anarchism, i.e. as though all share the same history? This is ridiculous.
The class character of Bakunin's theoretical foundations had no basis among the industrial proletariat. You mistaken me when I speak of applicability - I do not speak of the direct application of Bakunin's ideas, I speak of Bakunin's unique relevance all together. As muddied as is the class character of the anarchist tradition itself (something which you apparently insist on recognizing as homogeneous, not me) - what proletarian elements were among it had little at all to do with Bakunin in the unique sense. That was my point. If this is erroneous, then what part of "correct me of I'm wrong" is beyond you? The fact of the matter is that before the mass movement defined anarchism (i.e. anarcho-syndicalism) then Bakunin's anarchism was the anarchism of individual "terrorism" and petite-bourgeois radical politics. Anarchism's maturity culminated in its adherence among the American, British, Spanish, etc. industrial proletariat, after Bakunin. Is this wrong?
It does not matter how many books I have read (Funny, however, that it was Bakunin whom I read before the overwhelming majority of Marxists that I'm familiar with... Right at the beginning of my adherence to radical politics), if I have claimed something which betrays a sense of unfamiliarity with collectivist anarchism and its practical realities, then you're free to demonstrate this. Though how seriously should we take someone who had just previously insisted on the "illegitimacy" of what should be common knowledge to anyone who has shit for familiarity with Bakunin, only to go back on himself later when (unnecessarily) confronted with what only you would need as definite proof. Again, reason dictates that there would be no reason for anti-semitism to have been falsely attributed to Bakunin, none the less by Engels in the 19th century!


