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Interesting interview with Paul Mattick Jr from a couple of the Endnotes people. Talks about his new book, the economic crisis and his father's work on Marx and Keynes. Apparently the apple didn't fall very far from the tree.
http://libcom.org/library/paul-matti...s-fact-fiction
"From the relationship of estranged labor to private property it follows further that the emancipation of society from private property, etc., from servitude, is expressed in the political form of the emancipation of the workers; not that their emancipation alone is at stake, but because the emancipation of the workers contains universal human emancipation – and it contains this because the whole of human servitude is involved in the relation of the worker to production, and all relations of servitude are but modifications and consequences of this relation."
- Karl Marx -
That's very interesting-- I'll have to go back and check my copy. I forgot he wrote that.
Think we need to be pretty careful to think that government involvement in the economy can only be at the expense of the private economy because....
1. for one, it sounds a bit like Hayek, von Mises, Friedman-- govt. involvement can only be at the expense of the private economy, and the entire history of capitalism shows that is not so at all; that the involvement of the government has always been part of the expansion of capital.
2. How about......war? Is that government involvement at the expense of the private economy? If we measure that expense by profitability, the answer is obviously no.
3. On the flip side, stating that it government ownership cannot be profit-making might be interpreted a la Cockshott to mean the government ownership is ipso facto socialist [ a claim he makes for Britain-- post WW2/pre-Thatcher]. I think he refers to Britain's economy being, at one point, 1/3 socialist.
4. There are plenty of examples of government ownership of industry being profit making. Petrobras in Brazil; PSUV in Venezuela; and in the recent history of the US-- Conrail, which after being restored to profitability [on a pro-forma basis] was sold as a joint-stock company to private investors in an IPO, and then some years later divided up between Norfolk Southern and CSX.
5. And finally, kind of makes the whole range of state-capitalist theories irrelevant, no?
Money doesn't work like that.Originally Posted by Mattick Jr
wutExcept that Keynes didn't claim that the government should only interfere during slumps, and prescribed socializing investment as necessary to get near full employment.What were you thinking when you posted that interview?
Organic composition of capital and indebtness of a country are strictly correlated because the more capitalism develops, the more difficult is to raise productivity, hence the explosion of debts. so Mattick has a point, however, this is true only as a general trend. in the short periodo, the are idle resources that the state can move to help capitalism. this is the essence of keynesianism: to reduce the problem of capitalism now creating bigger problems tomorrow
patiently explain (Lenin)
God damn, the Matticks are good writers. I am want to read this book now.
Make no mistake: The organization of the working class must be both economic and political. The capitalist is organized upon both lines. You must attack him on both.
Daniel De Leon
The most important word in the language of the working class is solidarity.
Harry Bridges
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http://autonomousworkers.wordpress.com/
"Hmm, this looks like an interesting interview on points of topical political discussion with a name which is held in esteem by many Marxists. Hopefully if I post it on Revleft it will generate some decent discussion." Or words to that effect, I've had a pretty bad cold all day so to get a more accurate idea picture a sneeze interrupting the train of thought every couple of words. Also tbh I think I like "just fucking seize shit" as an answer to austerity better than I like "nationalisation under workers' control", "nationalisation of the commanding heights by a left-labour government" or whatever the 'left' is putting forward these days. Fuck, I think Mattick may even make me take the communisation school seriously.
The theory of money is a subject area I've been quite engrossed in recently so I'd appreciate it if you could explain what you think is wrong with Mattick's assertion and how money does work. I'm not sure about the rest of Revleft but personally I'm not very good at reading minds, especially across internet cables, so I need a bit more prompting to get an idea of your train of thought than 'that's not how this works'.
Last edited by Zanthorus; 10th July 2011 at 23:41.
"From the relationship of estranged labor to private property it follows further that the emancipation of society from private property, etc., from servitude, is expressed in the political form of the emancipation of the workers; not that their emancipation alone is at stake, but because the emancipation of the workers contains universal human emancipation – and it contains this because the whole of human servitude is involved in the relation of the worker to production, and all relations of servitude are but modifications and consequences of this relation."
- Karl Marx -
Mattick Jr: Blah crisis that should have happened in the mid-1970s blah enormous outpouring of credit blah and they managed in one way or another to put off the crisis for forty years.
If an individual loses their job, that individual's consumption can maybe stay where it has been for a while because of savings or credit, without that being a long-term solution of course. Mattick Jr makes a similar claim about the economy as a whole when he talks about putting off the crisis by easy credit. But there is nothing equivalent to the story with the single household for the economy as a whole, since money doesn't really conserve energy, it only appears that way on the micro level.
Said in other words: You as an individual may have a claim to consumption based on your past productivity or promised future productivity, but the stuff consumed in the present is very much produced in the present. So while an individual's career slump can be maybe papered over through credit temporarily, it is impossible to do that for the economy as a whole, it's impossible for 4 years, nevermind 40.
Except that that time period was accompanied by real retrogression in Third World living standards, per capita growth, in the workers' wage bill in the West, etc. Immediately after Bretton Woods is abandoned and stagflation begins in the U.S., the beginning of the cannibalization of the various developmental projects throughout the Third World begins. The Latin American debt crisis, the early testing of the neoliberal system under the Latin fascists, the Washington Consensus beginning in the 80s throughout the Third World, neoliberalism spreading to the nationalist economic projects and overcoming the COMECON bloc, etc. Throughout that entire epoch you have a freezing of wages in the U.S. and a massive influx of labor away from social needs (like child-rearing and supervision, home cooking, etc.) in order to bridge from the 1-paycheck to 2-3-paycheck family. The growth since the 1970s has not realized itself socially in the way that the post-war growth did.
@Inform Candidate: Can you try to paraphrase the claims you are "replying" to?
You're essentially contending that there is no way credit could be used to postpone economic decline (we should be clear about how you define this, is by 18-month sustained decline in GDP growth? what do you suggest) because the "household" analogy cannot make sense extrapolated onto the global scale. All I mean to point out, is that gains did start coming from somewhere else after the 70s crisis, in essence by cannibalizing the social gains prior to the crisis. Just as I would be able to mask my entire neighborhood's credit bubble if I organized robberies of the ghettoes of the few services and sell-able goods they did have.
Did I "reply" enough for you? Or should I package it with some utopian system of labor-bills that could be administered by Brezhnevite bureaucrats. Then you might as well join my fan club.
Would you need to have such a bubble first in order to rob? If the answer is no, what's Mattick Jr's point in bringing up credit expansion?No, since you haven't addressed whether my claim (while an individual's career slump can be maybe papered over through credit temporarily, it is impossible to do that for the economy as a whole, it's impossible for 4 years, nevermind 40) is right or wrong.
He says himself: with real productive investments in decline, the gap has been made up by diverting yesterday's costs with credit instruments, paying for that and keeping up confidence via lowering global cost of labor power, by speculation in asset bubbles, and the like. Furthermore, by manipulation of currency valuations, the U.S. has already succeeded in having its debt reduced in value. What do you think the Yen re-evaluation was about?
How about your positive claim. What do you think happened since stagflation? The policymakers did not have enough Keynesian pizzazz? Hadn't met Paul Cockshott and Burnheim yet? What exactly?
Why don't you qualify the intellectuals tools you're working with? What does crisis mean to you?
I find it curious I'm expected to disprove your ex cathedra assertions about economy and economic history, while you're not obliged in any fashion to generate a positive claim for the events from stagflation to today.
I admit I haven't read his book, and only have this blurb to go on and having read his review of Harvey's The Limits to Capital, among other things. I'm willing to be proved wrong if you want to present something substantive. Though to be honest what I think happened here is you saw Zanthorus posted something and rushed, hard-on in hand, for an opportunity to troll and talk shit. That's what I think.
There's nothing special in what I point out, it's basic fallacy-of-composition stuff. Maybe you want to re-read this post after cooling off a bit.
Uh, except Mattick, Jr. never says "a family can get out of no salary with debt, so a country can!" Try to locate it for me, with a quote, because apparently I am blind it appears to me to be just a fabrication of yours so you may perpetuate your typical Quixotic assault on strawmen which appear compelling only to yourself. So its not a fallacy of composition, since that argument was never made.
Furthermore, its actually the other way around, where atomized economic actors in an economy like individuals or households cannot beat the trends and rules of the economy in some ways that nations absolutely can (because they can use leverage to renegotiate terms: what do you think all the Chinese currency valuation whining is about except an attempt to force on China an essential forgiveness of U.S. debt used to purchase their shit commodities?). In fact, it is the Tea Partiers who actually use the "families can't ignore their debts, so neither can the country!" when in fact they very much can in ways families cannot.
In fact, the entire German economy of 1933-1939 was premised on this kind of putting off of crisis (which is why Hjalmar Schacht and the rest of the economic mainstream abandoned Nazi policymaking or tailed Goering silently, and the Nazi state operated with like a couple weeks worth of currency reserves). Six years is a lot longer than four, actually. Maybe you should read Richard J. Evans' The Third Reich in Power.
There is one claim of fact in your "argument", and it is wrong.
But I'm probably an OBSCURANTIST CLOWN WHO NEED TO COOL OFF OMFG WUT LOL
The works of Paul Mattick, Sr. were really my first foray into "left communist theory" and both his and his son's lucid manner of writing made them both accessible and enjoyable to read. "Spontaneity and Organisation" was an essay which has had such a profound impact on me and truly demonstrated just how wrong the argument in Lenin's WITBD really was. That said, councilism--perhaps in reaction to Leninism--seems to go the exact opposite reaction. Makes me wonder what Mattick or any latter-day councilist would suggest be the solution to this very real problem as outlined above. Surely if there does not exist any "iron law of history" then some sort of action must be taken on the part of communists as a matter of practical intervention? I don't see councilists address this issue much, and cede much ground to the Leninists instead.
I think we need to dig a bit into this. First I haven't read this book by Mattick, Jr. and an interview probably is not the place where he can expound at length on the details in which this devil is, but a few things:
1. When we are talking about "crisis," we should be talking about shorter durations than 40 years. This is a recurring disagreement between my friend Loren Goldner and myself-- [most of our friendship is based on our continuing and very productive disagreements]. If there's a crisis for 40 years, then it's no longer a crisis, it's the not-so-new normal.
2. The "crisis" of the 1970s was not a crisis of the 1970s. It was the result of the topping out of the rate of return on investment in US industry around 1968 or 1969. It was the result of the over-accumulation of capital beyond the ability of wage-labor to provide sufficient surplus value to maintain the valorization, the growth of the means of production encapsulated as capital... that is maintain their value only to the extent that the process and profitability of accumulation is not impaired. Such profitability was definitely impaired.
3. What's happened since then certainly includes expansion of debt, credit bubbles, etc. etc., but these things don't "postpone" the "crisis." These are offsetting tendencies that work to redistribute profits, liquidate areas of overaccumulation, and most importantly, transfer wealth up the social ladder. Where return on production is inadequate to sustain both the bourgeoisie's personal aggrandizement of wealth, and the rates of growth of capital, investment etc, the bourgeoisie circle the wagons, gate their communities, and drives others' living standards down, pocketing the difference. Wages are attacked; benefits are attacked; taxes are attacked; anything and everything that might take a dime away from the bourgeoisie is attacked.
4. Just such an attack on wage rates, living standards, was executed through recession, and through oil price increases, with oil revenues-- petrodollars being recycled through the US financial system to be loaned out to-- in the 1980s, farmers, Latin American countries, S &Ls, leveraged buyout companies etc. driving both further over-accumulation and further asset stripping and asset-liquidation-- the great fragging of the US working class.
5. This is not, or not simply, the expansion of "fictitious capital" to pump up the illusion of valorization [another continuous and productive disagreement with my friend Loren]. There was real over-accumulation, real overproduction, real asset-stripping, real attacks on wage rates, real attacks on labor rules, real expulsion of labor power from the process of production providing real boost to profit but with profit being in essence, "decapitalized" and packaged into personal wealth. It's more accurate to point out that all capital becomes fictitious when it cannot reproduce itself profitably enough.
6. Mattick, Jr. to the contrary notwithstanding, the 1992-2000 period saw real increases in capital investment in the US in particular [although at rates lower than in the 60s, but higher than the 80s], applications of advanced technologies, improved rates of profitability [at rates lower than the 60s but higher than the 80s]. And of course, accompanying this improvement, part and parcel and whole, was increased overproduction, particularly in semiconductor fabrication, electronics, means of communication and transportation [the old "trucks and telephones" tandem that mark economic expansions]. At one point, around 2000 I believe, 95% of the fiber optic cable put into the ground in the US was unused, carrying no data, no voice, nothing.
7. What's going on now certainly has its roots in that originally post-WW2 peaking of the US economy, but that's not to say-- oh this is the postponed impact. That impact wasn't postponed for one. The "structural adjustments" made by the bourgeoisie worked. "What? you say. How can that be called working. There was no golden age." Not for you maybe, not for most of the world definitely, but for the bourgeoisie all that counts is that it worked for them. And it did. That's golden enough.
This specific downturn can also be traced to a peak in the rate of return on investment in US industry, achieved in 2006-2007.
Recovery from the 2001-2003 recession in the US had been predicated on several things: draconian controls on further capital spending: capital consumption exceed replacement rates to 2005 IIRC. Industry pared debt and took on very little new financial burdens. US banking, which prior to the recession had its "book"-- loans outstanding-- almost equally split between industry loans and consumer loans had to shift with the shift by industry. The new mix measured 30% industry and 70% consumer.
In addition, wage rates were held down. I don't think wages exceeded their 2000 level until 2005 in US industry.
Devaluation of the dollar, "malign neglect" was the Bush administrations replacement for the Atlantic Alliance. Beggar they neighbor is always in the capital book of psalms.
And of course, the war in Iraq with its push to oil prices helped the hedge funds, investment bankers, etc. make money the old fashioned way-- by pushing petrodollars through the economy.
Then what happened? Industry had to resume capital spending, absolutely had to replace the capital it had consumed during its lockdown period...... wages pushed up; the price of oil blew sky-high, the accumulation of value again had produced the devaluation of accumulation.
So rather than say "crisis this" and "crisis that," it's the fact that capitalism, the capitalists have been able to make everybody else pay that's important. They may be in crisis, but it suits them just fine. I don't think the question is "Is capitalism in crisis?" I think the question is "Is accumulation impaired?" If the answer is yes, and I believe it is yes, then the question to be asked is "What must be done to prevent the bourgeoisie from taking the steps it must take to exploit the mass of labor at an intensity sufficient to offset that impairment?"
I think his point is that "state involvement" in no way abjures or obscures the fact we're dealing with capitalism here. Its a dismissal of vulgar Keynesianism that the fundamental qualities of the capitalist mode of production can be fine-tuned out-of-existance by the state as a "free agent", intelligently controlled by expert bureaucrats and policymakers with the "right" plans.
While an individual that ceases to work may be able to postpone a drop in their quality of life from not producing stuff anymore by means of savings or credit, this doesn't work for the economy as a whole, even for a very short period, like a year. So when Mattick Jr. says, The key idea in my book is that this crisis was put off by the creation of debt in all these forms blahblahblah, that doesn't make sense.I agree that this is a typical Tea-Party thing to say and as I have pointed out several times in other threads, a government that issues its own currency is in a fundamentally different position. What I'm getting at is that Mattick Jr. is understating the micro-macro differences and makes very basic mistakes in the process. When a well-paid individual has a career-nosedive and goes into debt instead of reducing consumption, that individual is putting off a problem, and that problem grows with time. When a government strongly intervenes in a situation of mass unemployment and increases output, it isn't doing the same thing on a big scale, it isn't putting off a crisis.
A lot of the stuff I read on this forum reminds me of Tea Partiers, eg. this:Originally Posted by Mattick Jr
Repetition does not make an argument. You may be correct that Mattick Jr. is wrong, but your arguments to achieve that end are incompetent. I've already demonstrated both theoretically ("beggar thy neighbor" as S. Artesian put it better than I could) and empirically (Yen revaluation, attempted Renimbi revaluation, Nazi Germany) how the exact opposite could and is sometimes the case.
Also, how is the content of Mattick Jr.'s argument a fallacy of composition? Do you even comprehend what a fallacy means? It means your opponent literally attempted to argue a conclusion is true via fallacious logic. You do not get to suggest a strawman your opponent does not use, and then point out that that strawman is fallacious in content. I don't think you understand basic logic.
This would be really interesting if you could locate anywhere that Mattick Jr. makes his argument (however right or wrong it might be, should a competent critic make a sound argument refuting it) premised on "micro-macro" differences. At no point does Mattick claim that nations are like families living on credit card debt after they lose their jobs. That's your fabrication. Try to realize the difference between your inventions and your opponent's arguments.
If you would like to demonstrate an alternative explanation of the explosion in debt after the 1970s, and explain why as well theoretically that growth since then has not been in a sense artificially putting off fundamental shortfalls (and most importantly, that it is theoretically impossible to do so - which is your actual claim), then I would be most interested in hearing it. But that requires some work, some explanation.
Let's stop fucking around: Do you think state intervention -- Keynesianism -- can overcome or disproves the Marxist contention of capitalism as intrinsically prone to crisis and decline? Do you think that crisis can and has been overcome, as long as its a question of choosing correct policy options?
You've also done some bluffing about money. Why don't you explain how money works?
Or is all you have this inverted Tea Partyism to call an "argument"?
Thank you for posting this, this thread is win.