Quote:
All of this is besides the point. In a market society every individual mind is accorded a dual role in determining the quantities of monetary calculation. In their consumer roles, all people make monetary bids for the existing stocks of final goods according to their subjective valuations, leading to the emergence of objective monetary exchange ratios
which relate the values of all consumer goods to one another. Nothing in a labor theory of value explains this process.
This argument was long ago demolished by Bukharin who pointed out the circularity of asserting that subjective valuations determine prices when in fact the price of a commodity affects how we subjectively value it. Thus should the price be excessive we may well decide (subjectively of course). that we dont really want it after all
In still intrigued though by the mental gymnastics which our market apologists undergo in order to explain how it is, as Mises puts it,
“exchange value… arises out of the interplay of the subjective valuations of all who take part in exchange" How exactly does the one thing translate into the other? The arguments put forward have always stuck me as extremely woolly, vague and unconvincing to the point of metaphysical obscrutantism. For instance a hungry pauper may value a slap up meal extremely highly but how does her valuation of this enter into the process of determing exchange ratios when she posseses little or nothing in the way of purchasing power with which to give expression to her "subjective valuation"? I would seriously love to know how your Austrian economist gets round that one
The Austrian School is based upon very poor economic foundations, in my opinion, and their notion of value is often extremely confused - often they confuse use value with exchange value and so end up barking up the wrong tree when attacking critics like Marxists
The argument that trade is a positive sum game is a case in point. You earlier stated that you would only trade your apple for my orange if you valued my orange more than your apple (and conversely I would only trade with you if I valued your apple more than my orange) -which kind of illustrates this confusion. Yes. that is obviously true from a perspective of use value but it is a different matter when it comes to the determination of exchange value and what strikes one immediately is the inappositeness of such an example. It is talking about barter whereas we are talking about the exchange of a sum of money for an apple (or an orange).
To be literally consistent, you would have to say that the use value of an apple exceeds the use value of say 1 dollar which is the price at which the apple sells in order to prompt you to buy the said apple. But what is the use value of 1 dollar?There is not much you can literally do with a dollar note (apart from wipe your bum, or perhaps start a fire, with it ) . True, you can exchange it for something else. but isnt this where the difficult of asserting trade is a positive sum game shows itself?
What if your situation was reversed and you were selling the apple? Would the use value of 1 dollar be the same? Apparently not. In the first instance you would underrate a dollar in relation to the apple in the second you would overate it.
Of course, we are talking about a moving target here in the form of an apple and your valuation of an apple will indeed change according to your circumstances - for instance whether you are hungry or not - but can the same thing be said of money against which all commodities exchange in general?
The implication woud seem to be that the more money you have the less would you hunger for the stuff. You should tell that particular fairy story to the billionares amongst us whose appetite for the stuff doesnt seem to have diminished by already having so much of it!!