Giles20
3rd October 2008, 10:44
Alright everyone
I am a new Marxist and have only recently started analysing his theories. However, i still cannot find an answer to this question:- "Do capitalists have the right to pay a worker less than the value he/she creates on the basis that the means of production is privately owned?" For example, a capitalist can argue that the worker is in turn "renting" the means of production, therefore giving the capitalist the right in taking a percentage off the value created by the worker.
It would be great if anyone can help me, its been bugging me for weeks.
Cheers
I am a new Marxist and have only recently started analysing his theories. However, i still cannot find an answer to this question:- "Do capitalists have the right to pay a worker less than the value he/she creates on the basis that the means of production is privately owned?" For example, a capitalist can argue that the worker is in turn "renting" the means of production, therefore giving the capitalist the right in taking a percentage off the value created by the worker.
It would be great if anyone can help me, its been bugging me for weeks.
Cheers