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eyedrop
18th May 2008, 18:38
I would like to spark a discussion on what the material reasons for the differing views on sexuality in asian countries such as Thailand and Laos from the western conservative views.

From what I can see they don't have the sex-is-sacred attitude that has been prevalent in the west and haven't had. Why is that? Or am I mistaken?

chimx
18th May 2008, 19:48
I believe historically it was a polygamist culture. It was made illegal over half a century ago, but between this culture of polygamy amongst the wealthier class, combined with the poverty of these countries, prostitution and "sex tourism" has become quite common.

EscapeFromSF
18th May 2008, 22:50
I would like to spark a discussion on what the material reasons for the differing views on sexuality in asian countries such as Thailand and Laos from the western conservative views.

From what I can see they don't have the sex-is-sacred attitude that has been prevalent in the west and haven't had. Why is that? Or am I mistaken?

I disagree that the West holds a "sex-is-sacred attitude." I would say rather that the West generally holds a sanctimonious attitude towards sex, that indulgence in it constitutes an appalling lack of self-discipline. While this attitude was spread throughout the world by Christian missionaries, and later with the rise of Islam, we can't expect the entire rest of the world to buy into it ;).

eyedrop
18th May 2008, 22:57
I disagree that the West holds a "sex-is-sacred attitude." I would say rather that the West generally holds a sanctimonious attitude towards sex, that indulgence in it constitutes an appalling lack of self-discipline. While this attitude was spread throughout the world by Christian missionaries, and later with the rise of Islam, we can't expect the entire rest of the world to buy into it ;).

But why did the west buy into it.

If historical materialism is correct shouldn't it be able to explain it in relation to the means of production?

Was it a neccesary development along the axis of history or was it just a historical accident?

chimx
18th May 2008, 23:02
Historical Materialism isn't meant to be used as a reductionist tool for analyzing history. human culture amongst other things plays a role in the development of human history. Historical Materialism simply means to emphasize that production relations provide the context under which people have to operate.

Now, if you want to look at polygamy in terms of economics, I believe the general consensus was that polygamy was common world-wide because it maximized offspring which in terms allowed for greater community strength.

eyedrop
18th May 2008, 23:16
Historical Materialism isn't meant to be used as a reductionist tool for analyzing history. human culture amongst other things plays a role in the development of human history. Historical Materialism simply means to emphasize that production relations provide the context under which people have to operate.

Thank you. This was very explaining. I think I understand it a lot better now. I've never really accepted it and this may be the reason. I've looked at it as an to rigid theory.