Die Neue Zeit
9th March 2008, 04:20
To begin with, the classical aspect of Marx's law of uneven development under capitalism refers to geographic areas (most notably ones that are nation-states or groups of nation-states):
The world is ready for revolution, but it isn't ready for the socialist mode of production. America, Japan, and Western Europe would presumably be closest to being ready for socialism, but poverty-stricken regions in Africa wouldn't. Those regions would need accelerated "primitive stamocap" (hence the whole reason behind Lenin's "revolutionary democracy"). Of course, the acceleration would be made possible by aid in economic development by the more advanced capitalist countries.
[This is basically a "revolutionary extension" of subsidized trade in favour of developing countries... except that I'm not talking just about trade.]
Then I posited another aspect in the Stamocap (http://www.revleft.com/vb/stamocap-t59014/index4.html) thread - industrial sectors:
From my understanding of your proposal, within a single economy there would be a capitalist sector and a non-capitalist sector (that could be represented various "different" non-capitalist sectors...).
So the socialist republic of X would have, instead of thinking of an iron sector, etc., we'd have a capitalist sector, etc.
That's my understanding of your proposal.
Not quite. My semantics are wrong here. I should have used the word "economy" instead of sector (Ben uses the two words interchangeably in his "post-revolution" articles). The whole global economy should be referred to as a "multi-economy" (for the purpose of this discussion).
Take the financial sector, for example (I'll give two or three here). The global proletocracy would absorb most of this sector into the state-capitalist economy, but there would still be the niche "credit unions" to serve as local competition (the private-capitalist economy, yet in this example "cooperative" in nature). The directly democratic elements ("socialist sector" - ie, no bureaucracy, but with sufficient communications technology to make society-wide decisions) would take quite a bit of time to wrest control of the financial sector from the state-capitalist economy, all the while competing with state enterprises. Then there are "moneyless"/communist considerations to consider (upon communism eliminating this sector completely).
Second example: in the case of the capital-intense "heavy industry" (especially construction and the related heavy urban development projects, which is dear to me), the "niche" would be either much smaller or non-existent (because of improved, yet capital-intensive, information technology in controlling manufacturing processes, for example), but direct democracy would also come after a protracted period of state monopoly capitalism. The moneyless/communist economy would emerge MUCH later.
Third example (and this one's dear to Ben): the media. In this one, I'm not sure if the private-capitalist economy will be existent immediately afterwards. The Big Media will have been wrested by the state-capitalist economy, and even then methinks the directly democratic economy will QUICKLY wrest this away from state capitalism. Furthermore, moneyless relations will be more prevalent here than in the financial services (the Internet). According to this example of uneven development, the full socialization of the media - and partial communization - will occur much faster than those of the financial and heavy-manufacturing sectors.
Now, what about a third: the uneven development of capitalist decadence?
The left-communists keep saying that capitalist decadence was ushered in with the start of WWI. The problem, however, is that they fail to consider the Stalin-era Soviet economic boom and the post-WWII Western economic boom.
WWI was certainly a major step towards capitalist decadence, but what about mass de-colonialization and all the associated national-liberation movements immediately after WWII? By that time, it became clear that:
A) Colonialism was a liability to capitalist development; and
B) Even when progressive, colonialism wasn't a quintessential feature of capitalist development.
Granted, today we've got "Balkanization," but if the whole capitalist decadence began with WWI, "Balkanization" would have occurred long ago.
What about the mixed-bag credit boom (which, per gilhyle, "faciliates the intensified integration of society's assets into the capitalist economy") associated with the overall post-WWII Western economic boom? On the one hand, there was an economic boom not seen in the West during the interwar years, but nowadays we're seeing negative savings rates and sluggish economic growth in the developed world, in spite of an accelerated credit boom that followed the abandonment of the gold standard:
http://www.revleft.com/vb/banks-and-credit-t67963/index.html
Actually you can keep expanding credit for ever - as long as the credit advanced leads to an expansion in the forces of production. Credit operates like a commodity. There is a credit cycle where the volumes of credit expands and contracts and the price of credit varies.
The situation is complicated by the manipulation of the price of credit by the state and the manipulation of the credit cycle by regulation.
The expansion of credit is not a sign of capitalism in crises, it is the basic mechanism of growth in the capitalist economy.
On the one hand, it seems disheartening at first. On the other hand, this is exactly the kind of phenomenon I was referring to in my "Stamocap" thread (credit taking the form of "leverage" re. pyramidal holdings).
That last remark of yours needs further discussion in my Research and Online Classes thread ("Question on America's debt levels"), because debt is growing disproportionately to the economy and to national income. Is this disproportion what you're referring to in your "as long as" qualification above?
Under capitalism proportionality is determined by the market. If you can invest and get a return sufficient to service the debt then the credit cycle will continue. Debt will grow 'disproportionately' under the kind of neo - Keynesian policies the Fed has pursued for years now. But disproportionality is not a yes or no condition. Credit expansion can justify itself after the fact - sometimes by events that were unrelated to the assessment of the credit decisions. The anarchy of capitalism sometimes works in its favour. Thus something can be disproportionate at the time of issue and later prove sustainable.
Thats not to underestimate the capacity for capitalism in its current phase for significant credit-based asset price inflation. This is undoubtedly caused by the weakening of credit regulation - linked to taking credit off-balance sheet the banks' b/s and thus out of the regulatory framework.
Other applications? General thoughts?
The world is ready for revolution, but it isn't ready for the socialist mode of production. America, Japan, and Western Europe would presumably be closest to being ready for socialism, but poverty-stricken regions in Africa wouldn't. Those regions would need accelerated "primitive stamocap" (hence the whole reason behind Lenin's "revolutionary democracy"). Of course, the acceleration would be made possible by aid in economic development by the more advanced capitalist countries.
[This is basically a "revolutionary extension" of subsidized trade in favour of developing countries... except that I'm not talking just about trade.]
Then I posited another aspect in the Stamocap (http://www.revleft.com/vb/stamocap-t59014/index4.html) thread - industrial sectors:
From my understanding of your proposal, within a single economy there would be a capitalist sector and a non-capitalist sector (that could be represented various "different" non-capitalist sectors...).
So the socialist republic of X would have, instead of thinking of an iron sector, etc., we'd have a capitalist sector, etc.
That's my understanding of your proposal.
Not quite. My semantics are wrong here. I should have used the word "economy" instead of sector (Ben uses the two words interchangeably in his "post-revolution" articles). The whole global economy should be referred to as a "multi-economy" (for the purpose of this discussion).
Take the financial sector, for example (I'll give two or three here). The global proletocracy would absorb most of this sector into the state-capitalist economy, but there would still be the niche "credit unions" to serve as local competition (the private-capitalist economy, yet in this example "cooperative" in nature). The directly democratic elements ("socialist sector" - ie, no bureaucracy, but with sufficient communications technology to make society-wide decisions) would take quite a bit of time to wrest control of the financial sector from the state-capitalist economy, all the while competing with state enterprises. Then there are "moneyless"/communist considerations to consider (upon communism eliminating this sector completely).
Second example: in the case of the capital-intense "heavy industry" (especially construction and the related heavy urban development projects, which is dear to me), the "niche" would be either much smaller or non-existent (because of improved, yet capital-intensive, information technology in controlling manufacturing processes, for example), but direct democracy would also come after a protracted period of state monopoly capitalism. The moneyless/communist economy would emerge MUCH later.
Third example (and this one's dear to Ben): the media. In this one, I'm not sure if the private-capitalist economy will be existent immediately afterwards. The Big Media will have been wrested by the state-capitalist economy, and even then methinks the directly democratic economy will QUICKLY wrest this away from state capitalism. Furthermore, moneyless relations will be more prevalent here than in the financial services (the Internet). According to this example of uneven development, the full socialization of the media - and partial communization - will occur much faster than those of the financial and heavy-manufacturing sectors.
Now, what about a third: the uneven development of capitalist decadence?
The left-communists keep saying that capitalist decadence was ushered in with the start of WWI. The problem, however, is that they fail to consider the Stalin-era Soviet economic boom and the post-WWII Western economic boom.
WWI was certainly a major step towards capitalist decadence, but what about mass de-colonialization and all the associated national-liberation movements immediately after WWII? By that time, it became clear that:
A) Colonialism was a liability to capitalist development; and
B) Even when progressive, colonialism wasn't a quintessential feature of capitalist development.
Granted, today we've got "Balkanization," but if the whole capitalist decadence began with WWI, "Balkanization" would have occurred long ago.
What about the mixed-bag credit boom (which, per gilhyle, "faciliates the intensified integration of society's assets into the capitalist economy") associated with the overall post-WWII Western economic boom? On the one hand, there was an economic boom not seen in the West during the interwar years, but nowadays we're seeing negative savings rates and sluggish economic growth in the developed world, in spite of an accelerated credit boom that followed the abandonment of the gold standard:
http://www.revleft.com/vb/banks-and-credit-t67963/index.html
Actually you can keep expanding credit for ever - as long as the credit advanced leads to an expansion in the forces of production. Credit operates like a commodity. There is a credit cycle where the volumes of credit expands and contracts and the price of credit varies.
The situation is complicated by the manipulation of the price of credit by the state and the manipulation of the credit cycle by regulation.
The expansion of credit is not a sign of capitalism in crises, it is the basic mechanism of growth in the capitalist economy.
On the one hand, it seems disheartening at first. On the other hand, this is exactly the kind of phenomenon I was referring to in my "Stamocap" thread (credit taking the form of "leverage" re. pyramidal holdings).
That last remark of yours needs further discussion in my Research and Online Classes thread ("Question on America's debt levels"), because debt is growing disproportionately to the economy and to national income. Is this disproportion what you're referring to in your "as long as" qualification above?
Under capitalism proportionality is determined by the market. If you can invest and get a return sufficient to service the debt then the credit cycle will continue. Debt will grow 'disproportionately' under the kind of neo - Keynesian policies the Fed has pursued for years now. But disproportionality is not a yes or no condition. Credit expansion can justify itself after the fact - sometimes by events that were unrelated to the assessment of the credit decisions. The anarchy of capitalism sometimes works in its favour. Thus something can be disproportionate at the time of issue and later prove sustainable.
Thats not to underestimate the capacity for capitalism in its current phase for significant credit-based asset price inflation. This is undoubtedly caused by the weakening of credit regulation - linked to taking credit off-balance sheet the banks' b/s and thus out of the regulatory framework.
Other applications? General thoughts?