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Cosplay
6th December 2007, 09:16
I've been studying socialism in general for a while now, but mostly broad facts. A discussion on another forum came up on the nature of capitalist exploitatoin. I argued agaist the supposed worker's "self-ownership" of their labor and that the capitalist grew rich by virtue of property ownership.

Then my opponent answered:



The question of whether someone is being fairly compensated for their labor largely presumes there is an objective rule of measure for a commodity beyond what people are willing to sell or buy it. The worth of a commodity thus is a subjective value judgment, that means what something is worth to you may not be be worth anything or as much to me, which is why it is rational to enter into trade agreements with one another. What does it mean for someone to be paid their worth? If you can understand that, you understand this Marxist notion that an employee is entitled to the profits of the company they work for is absurd, as a company makes its profits based on the willingness of buyers to pay the going price of the product. (Also odd they would abolish private property but now they want workers to be paid? My question is paid in what? Money is a medium to attaining private property so I suppose they would just be paid in more Marxist propaganda?)

Someone's labor is only worth what someone else is willing to pay for it and what someone else is willing to sell it for. It is an agreement between two parties (employer and employee) that decide the worth of that labor. The employer takes the fruit of that labor that they purchased, and combined with other factors of production (capital investment, insurance, marketing) sell that product to a willing buyer. The employer is a factor in that production and likewise is entitled to the fruits of their own labor (profit). Employees in turn though do get a share of that profits (a weekly paycheck) and without the help of an employer to set up the capital investment, neither party can flourish together in a mutually beneficial relationship. In essence really what the Marxist doesn't like is that some people make more money than others. The only way they could solve this is force some to work at a wage they would not agree to, or forcibly take their wealth and give it to someone else.

I would reject the notion of egalitarianism that every worker puts in an equal level of production with every other worker. It largely depends on skill level, desire, ambition, and talent.

A lot of what he says seems to betray a fundamental understanding of socialism/Marxism, but I'm uncertain of how to approach his idea of the worker and the capitalist being on equal footing. My understanding on socialist economics is not perfect, so it'd be great to hear what you guys think :)

Faux Real
6th December 2007, 11:29
The question of whether someone is being fairly compensated for their labor largely presumes there is an objective rule of measure for a commodity beyond what people are willing to sell or buy it.
There is one other rule of "objective" measurement besides the price system (as if that's objective :rolleyes: ), and that is the commodities use-value.

The worth of a commodity thus is a subjective value judgment, that means what something is worth to you may not be be worth anything or as much to me, which is why it is rational to enter into trade agreements with one another.
Ok. Then why can't workers form these "trade agreements" with other workers rather than CEO's and the like?

What does it mean for someone to be paid their worth?
To guarantee that this 'someone' is paid enough to live well.

If you can understand that, you understand this Marxist notion that an employee is entitled to the profits of the company they work for is absurd, as a company makes its profits based on the willingness of buyers to pay the going price of the product.
Marxists do not want to see employees entitled to the "profits" of a company, they want the workers to own and manage it themselves and have an equal share from the revenue among all workers.

(Also odd they would abolish private property but now they want workers to be paid? My question is paid in what? Money is a medium to attaining private property so I suppose they would just be paid in more Marxist propaganda?)He does not understand what private property is, and we do not want to abolish it in the sense that it goes away. Rather, communists and the like want to seize control of private property to make it a worker owned property of the community. The separation of private and public property creates wealth disparity in the first place, through the most inherent contradiction in capitalism.

The owner wants to keep his profits up while paying his workers as low as possible, yet the consumers need to be able to afford the commodity and if those consumers are not being paid enough to consume this owner's product, the owner would have to resort to layoffs and an enough lowering of prices to maintain a profit margin.

In essence really what the Marxist doesn't like is that some people make more money than others. The only way they could solve this is force some to work at a wage they would not agree to, or forcibly take their wealth and give it to someone else.Load of bull. Someone can further elaborate, I'm a bit dozy at the moment...

I would reject the notion of egalitarianism that every worker puts in an equal level of production with every other worker. It largely depends on skill level, desire, ambition, and talent.
If a garbage worker, or if every garbage worker for that matter stopped collecting garbage and the streets were filled with it, how well would his economy do if people couldn't live in toxicity? Is this job not as equally important as say, a Physical Education instructor? A doctor?

Anyone who contributes to their society is doing their share in the advancement of all, there shouldn't be any reason to marginalize them.

Tossing out words like "talent" "ambition" and "desire" are nothing more than fancy images of "striking it big" that capitalists wish to fill everyone's minds with. Which almost no one amounts to.
---
Someone else can hopefully take it from here, I'm tired and can barely bother with recalling any theory...

Welcome to the site, and I like your name. :)

Raúl Duke
6th December 2007, 18:21
Originally posted by [email protected] 06, 2007 04:15 am
Then my opponent answered:


The question of whether someone is being fairly compensated for their labor largely presumes there is an objective rule of measure for a commodity beyond what people are willing to sell or buy it. The worth of a commodity thus is a subjective value judgment, that means what something is worth to you may not be be worth anything or as much to me, which is why it is rational to enter into trade agreements with one another. What does it mean for someone to be paid their worth? If you can understand that, you understand this Marxist notion that an employee is entitled to the profits of the company they work for is absurd, as a company makes its profits based on the willingness of buyers to pay the going price of the product. (Also odd they would abolish private property but now they want workers to be paid? My question is paid in what? Money is a medium to attaining private property so I suppose they would just be paid in more Marxist propaganda?)

Someone's labor is only worth what someone else is willing to pay for it and what someone else is willing to sell it for. It is an agreement between two parties (employer and employee) that decide the worth of that labor. The employer takes the fruit of that labor that they purchased, and combined with other factors of production (capital investment, insurance, marketing) sell that product to a willing buyer. The employer is a factor in that production and likewise is entitled to the fruits of their own labor (profit). Employees in turn though do get a share of that profits (a weekly paycheck) and without the help of an employer to set up the capital investment, neither party can flourish together in a mutually beneficial relationship. In essence really what the Marxist doesn't like is that some people make more money than others. The only way they could solve this is force some to work at a wage they would not agree to, or forcibly take their wealth and give it to someone else.

I would reject the notion of egalitarianism that every worker puts in an equal level of production with every other worker. It largely depends on skill level, desire, ambition, and talent.

I hope this helps/is good enough.

1st Paragraph:
The person is to busy thinking a capitalist framework. In a way we have already understood the problem with wage labor or with the use of money to add value to goods and services. We pay the plastic surgeon more than the waste management workers yet if we had no waste management we would be living in our own trash, shit, etc and be dieing from multiple diseases. Thats why in actual communism there is no money (at all) but equal distribution of goods ("From each according to their abilities, to each according to their needs").

In a socialist economy with money you would still have the problems that money brings.

Another problem his argument doesn't deal correctly the concept of profit. Profits are the amount of extra money capitalists acquire from selling a worker's goods and services.

Let's say that in the socialist society with money there are self-employed workers and workers working in collectives. The self-employed workers would get exactly all the money from the sale of their goods. Workers in collectives would either be giving what they are entitled (from what they produced) or they get paid a equal share of what the collective as a whole makes from its goods and/or services.

Paragraph 2
It seems this guy has taken an AP economics course. The problem is, do workers really need their bosses? True, since they have capital they are easily able to organize all the means of production to make products. (i.e. the reason why its called the "dictatorship of capital" or burgeoisie republic, because those with the money set the rules.) But if capital wasn't an issue than this problem would be a non-issue. It could be true that we really don't like the concept of some people making more money than others...but the main crux is that this extra money (profit) comes from the labor of workers and could be more evenly divided (but isn't, they take a huge amount of income just for hiring other people to organize the factors of production). In a way, the capitalists already forcibly take our "wealth" (well...more our labor but they use that to make more capital) and we either have to accept their standards or starve.

Paragraph 3rd
I don't think this is what's exactly meant as Marxist egalitarianism. Not everyone has the same "skill level, desire, ambition, and talent" yet everyone's work (in a socialist/communist society) would be neccesary for society. Its also looked into more collectively. Society as a whole works for the continued function, betterment, etc of society so Society as a whole should have roughly equal access to these fruits of labor.

EDIT Delayed Welcome! :) (Sorry was posting this first in my school...)

RedKnight
6th December 2007, 19:41
Hello, Cosplay. :) Your opponent is arguing from the standpoint of marginal utility (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Marginal_utility), while marxists like ourselves accept the labor theory of value (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Labor_theory_of_value). Hopefuly you can now at least understand where each other is coming from.

Oswy
6th December 2007, 19:56
Someone's labor is only worth what someone else is willing to pay for it and what someone else is willing to sell it for. It is an agreement between two parties (employer and employee) that decide the worth of that labor. The employer takes the fruit of that labor that they purchased, and combined with other factors of production (capital investment, insurance, marketing) sell that product to a willing buyer. The employer is a factor in that production and likewise is entitled to the fruits of their own labor (profit). Employees in turn though do get a share of that profits (a weekly paycheck) and without the help of an employer to set up the capital investment, neither party can flourish together in a mutually beneficial relationship.

The relationship between an employer and employee is usually only nominally an 'agreement' because in the capitalist system an employer can drive down what he's prepared to pay to the lowest market price, including to starvation levels where enough employees compete for the work offered (and remember, the prospective emplyee only has their labour to sell, so their 'choice' is only in a market of employers). In reality capitalist employer-employee relations are asymetrical ones, where the advantage is always, by degree, with employers. While the employer is able to parasitically extract and accumulate profit from the worker, the worker is continually in the position of having to labour for others. To talk of this as a 'mutually beneficial relationship' is to ignore the advantage the employer brings and accumulates in the relationship - all secured through private property (its advantages as a form of capital passed on, from one generation to another, to ensure the asymetric relationship is continued and expanded upon).

abbielives!
6th December 2007, 20:52
the notion that the capitalist and worker are on equal footing is nonsense, the capitalist has far greater resources and therefore greater bargaining power.

also note that his critique is of MARXIST economies (flawed as his argument may be), ANARCHIST or SOCIALIST economies can function in a way that renders his criticisms obsolete

Participatory Economics (Parecon) is a good example of this

http://www.zmag.org/parecon/indexnew.htm
http://www.parecon.org/thissite.htm

some books available online about it:

looking forward
http://www.zmag.org/books/lf.htm

Parecon: life after captialism
http://www.zmag.org/parecon/pelac.htm


now as to the debate:

first understand that exploitation simply means 'to take advantage of' and when a system puts decision making power and resources resources in the hands of a relative few that is an exploitative relationship. so what if value is subjective? that would not be out of line for an anarchist(democratic) economy. money is the medium for the exchange of goods, not property(note: there is a distinction between possessions and property), parecon argues for remuneration based on effort


welcome to the madness that is revleft by the way

Cosplay
7th December 2007, 09:13
Thanks for the warm welcome and the help!

Haha, my friend is indeed an economics major, which puts me at a huge disadvantage. Anyway, I've accumulated more messages from him since yestarday, and this is what he says:



The majority of Americans control the means of production, not the minority. The level of enterprenuership in America is higher than anywhere else in the world and a very large portion of Americans own stocks, mutual funds, and real estate (America has the highest rate of home ownership than anywhere else in the world).

Actually I should expound on this more. Everyone who works controls the means of production. When you work for a company, and get a weekly paycheck, you are controlling the means of your production (your own labor that you traded for a paycheck). Remember money is just a means to acquiring property, when you get paid a weekly paycheck you take that and go and buy property, so I would even reject the notion entirely that the ownership of the means of production are by a small minority since everyone own's their own labor, and labor being a means of production (own it, and are free to trade it for property) So actually this premise by Socialists is completely wrong.


The idea of workers already owning the means of production seems kind of an awkward way of putting it to me.. But it's basically going back to the worker and capitalist relationship again, which is still a battle of floating abstractions in my head. :mellow:

RedKnight
7th December 2007, 18:59
Originally posted by [email protected] 07, 2007 09:12 am
Thanks for the warm welcome and the help!

Haha, my friend is indeed an economics major, which puts me at a huge disadvantage. Anyway, I've accumulated more messages from him since yestarday, and this is what he says:



The majority of Americans control the means of production, not the minority. The level of enterprenuership in America is higher than anywhere else in the world and a very large portion of Americans own stocks, mutual funds, and real estate (America has the highest rate of home ownership than anywhere else in the world).

Actually I should expound on this more. Everyone who works controls the means of production. When you work for a company, and get a weekly paycheck, you are controlling the means of your production (your own labor that you traded for a paycheck). Remember money is just a means to acquiring property, when you get paid a weekly paycheck you take that and go and buy property, so I would even reject the notion entirely that the ownership of the means of production are by a small minority since everyone own's their own labor, and labor being a means of production (own it, and are free to trade it for property) So actually this premise by Socialists is completely wrong.


The idea of workers already owning the means of production seems kind of an awkward way of putting it to me.. But it's basically going back to the worker and capitalist relationship again, which is still a battle of floating abstractions in my head. :mellow:
His desription of capitalism is true, if this were a pre-industrial society. Before the rise of modern industry, workers controled the means of production. For example if you wanted new shoes you'd go to a cobbler, not a shoe store. Also on a related note, because of imperialism (which is the highest state of capitalism), the shoes you buy are almost always made in some asian country, like China, or Indonesia. Certainly these foreign workers do not own stock in the companies they work for. It's the machines that alienate labor from the means of production, which are owned by the company, which is generaly speaking a corporation.

Raúl Duke
7th December 2007, 22:15
Originally posted by [email protected] 07, 2007 04:12 am
Thanks for the warm welcome and the help!

Haha, my friend is indeed an economics major, which puts me at a huge disadvantage. Anyway, I've accumulated more messages from him since yestarday, and this is what he says:



The majority of Americans control the means of production, not the minority. The level of enterprenuership in America is higher than anywhere else in the world and a very large portion of Americans own stocks, mutual funds, and real estate (America has the highest rate of home ownership than anywhere else in the world).

Actually I should expound on this more. Everyone who works controls the means of production. When you work for a company, and get a weekly paycheck, you are controlling the means of your production (your own labor that you traded for a paycheck). Remember money is just a means to acquiring property, when you get paid a weekly paycheck you take that and go and buy property, so I would even reject the notion entirely that the ownership of the means of production are by a small minority since everyone own's their own labor, and labor being a means of production (own it, and are free to trade it for property) So actually this premise by Socialists is completely wrong.


The idea of workers already owning the means of production seems kind of an awkward way of putting it to me.. But it's basically going back to the worker and capitalist relationship again, which is still a battle of floating abstractions in my head. :mellow:

I find his idea of wage slavery=ownership of means of production odd..but than again it might be because he's not using the Marxist version.

See, according to him (and my economics textbook) workers have labor power which is a factor of production, thus they, according to him, "own" part of means of production . Problem is they don't own the fruits of their labor nor get reimbursed completely for their labor.

Socialists (or Marxists specifically) argue that "capital exploits labor" meaning that the worker is forced to work for a certain wage or "starve."

Even in a capitalist mind framework, workers get way too little slice "of the pie" while capitalists get a huge piece just for having the money to be able to organize the means of production (they don't really organize/administer production it per se, they instead hire people to do it for them!).

Another thing is that employees don't decide how things are done, etc. So they truly have no control of the production.

If money wasn't a factor than we wouldn't have this inequality (wage slavery). Also money (in terms of prices of things/goods) brings many other problems...it sometimes isn't very "accurate" (i.e. its hard to measure the worth of something correctly. waste management is important for society yet they get paid less than a dermatologists.) measurement. The goal of Marxism is a money-less economy (Communism).

Also like RedKnight mention, most of the workers that produce goods (which are in 3rd world or peripheral countries) don't own stock and their wages are really very pitiful and it would be ludicrous to call that "control/ownership of production."

I hope this info is accurate/good/worthy and I hope it helps. ;)

abbielives!
11th December 2007, 22:55
Originally posted by [email protected] 07, 2007 09:12 am



The majority of Americans control the means of production, not the minority. The level of enterprenuership in America is higher than anywhere else in the world and a very large portion of Americans own stocks, mutual funds, and real estate (America has the highest rate of home ownership than anywhere else in the world).

Actually I should expound on this more. Everyone who works controls the means of production. When you work for a company, and get a weekly paycheck, you are controlling the means of your production (your own labor that you traded for a paycheck). Remember money is just a means to acquiring property, when you get paid a weekly paycheck you take that and go and buy property, so I would even reject the notion entirely that the ownership of the means of production are by a small minority since everyone own's their own labor, and labor being a means of production (own it, and are free to trade it for property) So actually this premise by Socialists is completely wrong.




Stocks don't = control over the means of prodcution, the majority of americans don't own stocks futhermore even if it were true that the majority owned stocks and thus controled the means of production you would still have a disempowered minority who were effectively enslaved.

to control the means of production means to have desion making power over the day to day operation of the factory

RedKnight pretty much destroyed the second paaprgraph.

also I highly recomend you check out Parecon

Cosplay
13th December 2007, 07:20
So far, so good.

I've discussed with him the basics of exploitation, how it is the workers who extract the resources and create the means of production themselves.

Now he seems to be switching to another argument for "mental labor", how machines will replace workers anyway, and how innovation decides your share of the wealth. He brings up Bill Gates and Henry Ford as great thinkers who deserve to reap all the profits of their innovations. He also extends this idea into marketing and such, saying that good ideas deserve rewarding.

But the way I see it is that Bill Gates is no different than any other capitalist and that in the end it's economic factors - units being bought and sold on the market, ownership, etc. - that decides success. The issue, in my understanding, is whether or not something sells, regardless of how innovative an idea is. I'm not entirely certain on it, but isn't it also true that emerging technological fields often monopolistic?

Cosplay
13th December 2007, 07:22
Oh, and another simple question:
How do I get my picture uploaded?!!?!?! I keep trying to put in a link to photobucket, but it tells me that's an invalid URL.

mikelepore
13th December 2007, 09:09
Originally posted by [email protected] 06, 2007 09:15 am
Then my opponent answered:
The question of whether someone is being fairly compensated for their labor largely presumes there is an objective rule of measure for a commodity beyond what people are willing to sell or buy it.
What your opponent says is a rhetorical trick. When the population is divided between those whose work produces all the wealth but live in poverty and insecurity, and those who perform no useful work and live in luxury, no theoretical framework at all is necessary to establish the fact that the working class is robbed by the parasitic class. A theoretical framework is only useful to explain the mechanism by which the obvious fact takes place. When the demographic groups are those who produce but don't own, and those who own but don't produce, the fact that the idle class's wealth is expropriated from the working class is directly, empirically observable. Your opponent wants to conceal that glaring fact by disputing theory about the mechanism.

mikelepore
13th December 2007, 09:23
what someone else is willing to pay for it and what someone else is willing to sell it for. It is an agreement between two parties

One of the parties to this "agreement" owns the physical means that are required to sustain the life of the other party. That makes the "agreement" in the nature of the "agreement" that was made when an inquisitor said, "If you sign this witchcraft confession then I won't break your body on the rack."