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JazzRemington
4th December 2007, 20:00
I've been re-reading Das Kapital and I have found something very strange. I'm not sure if I am simply misunderstanding what I am reading, but I would like to discuss it and present my reasoning about it.

Ultimately, I would like to discuss how something becomes a commodity. According to Marx, a commodity is comprised of use-value and exchange value (otherwise known as value). For the longest time, I always thought that for a thing to become a commodity it must both possess utility (be or have a use-value) and possess abstract, general labor (i.e. socially necessary labor otherwise known to be the embodiment of exchange value).

But, further on he states:


The price-form, however, is not only compatible with the possibility of a quantitative incongruity between magnitude of value and price, i.e., between the former and its expression in money, but it may also conceal a qualitative inconsistency, so much so, that, although money is nothing but the value-form of commodities, price ceases altogether to express value. Objects that in themselves are no commodities, such as conscience, honour, &c., are capable of being offered for sale by their holders, and of thus acquiring, through their price, the form of commodities. Hence an object may have a price without having value.

So, am I to understand that a commodity is a material object external to humans and while abstract concepts such as conscience and honor are not material objects, they can take the form of commodities by merely being given a price? Does this mean that anything can become a commodity if it is given a price? If this is true, what about the whole exchange-value concept? What effect would giving something that is not normally a commodity a price, thus turning it into a commodity?

Raúl Duke
4th December 2007, 20:21
What about commodity in the sense used in the Society of the Spectacle (i.e. by the situationists)? Is it different (slightly, completely, or so-so) in any way to the one in Capital?

ComradeRed
4th December 2007, 20:25
What Marx is saying is that not just external objects can have a price. You can "buy" honor, but it's not a commodity since it's not an external object.

So the requirement of "having a price" is not unique to commodities only.

JazzRemington
5th December 2007, 02:40
So things such as honor can be given a price and appear as a commodity, but is not a commodity technically because it is not an external object? So I would be incorrect to say that honor (in this example) has been commodified?

ComradeRed
7th December 2007, 01:55
Originally posted by [email protected] 04, 2007 06:39 pm
So things such as honor can be given a price and appear as a commodity, but is not a commodity technically because it is not an external object? So I would be incorrect to say that honor (in this example) has been commodified?
Short answer: yes.

Long answer: look into commodity fetishism.

Lamanov
7th December 2007, 02:41
The question Jazz is asking is when and how does something become a commodity.

To clear this up, first: It is a moment, because it happens, and it is an act, because real people turn "all" things into commodities (as an act of will or compulsion, so its nothing metaphysical).

Answer: a "thing" becomes a commodity (if it primarily and essentially is not) when it is intended for exchange. "Honour", for example, realizes itself as a commodity in a concrete act, which - thus - has a value, just like labor does. "Honour" is, obviously, a metaphore.