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Victus Mortium
23rd November 2007, 17:56
This is something I have seen discussed elsewhere, and not seen much resolution on. I figured I would ask the question on this site. In Marxism, was property personal or collective? What does that mean in respect to private and common property? How would the aspects of property be handled? This is something I often see argued over. Whatever you say that it is in Marxism, please back it with evidence and explain (in general) how you think that would work.

Dros
23rd November 2007, 21:40
What kind of property?

Of course the means of production or bourgois private property would be publicly owned.

That doesn't mean that proletarian property would be collectivized necessarily.

This is all explained in the manifesto. It is not possible to make a sweeping statement. It depends on the nature of the property and the material conditions of the society.

Marxist1917
24th November 2007, 22:52
The line in the Communist Manifesto where Marx states that "the theory of the Communists can be summed up in one sentence- the abolition of private property" has been cited many times by rightists who want to scare people into thinking Marxists want to take away everything they own. This is not true. What Marx was referring to the means of production (factories for example). He goes on to say that personal property should not be collectivized, and is actually neccessary for society to function. However, this obviously does not mean that items that cost millions of dollars (such as rare jewelry for example) should be allowed to be owned. In reality those kinds of items should not be produced at all under a socialist economy, because that would be waisting productive recourses on useless items.

Comrade Rage
25th November 2007, 04:32
Factories, land, etc become public for the entire public to share.

Personal effects, computers, phones, (possessions) stay private.

Just to sum it up.

Victus Mortium
27th November 2007, 14:19
OK, I've been doing a bunch of reading, and I think that I have an understanding. Property, no matter who uses it, would not be 'private'. It would be 'common'. What those terms mean is that with 'private' property, you can do whatever you want with it, while with 'common' property you cannot act outside the interest of either society as a whole or those affected by your use of it (not sure which...?). That doesn't mean property is necessarily 'shared'. You could have 'personal' property, so long as you use it 'commonly' and not 'privately'. Right?