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Die Neue Zeit
7th October 2007, 07:26
Reading the contents of this particular article on Luxemburg's theory of imperialism (http://www.metamute.org/en/Fictitious-Capital-For-Beginners) reminded me so much of what was said in this blog (http://theoldmole.blogspot.com/2006/02/structures-of-imperialism.html):


Originally posted by Blog+--> (Blog)Capitalism could not take off without the existence of massive, concentrated stores of wealth, which could then be thrown into circulation as capital. The primitive accumulation of capital refers to the violent and lawless process by which this concentration occurred. The process of primitive accumulation also destroys pre-capitalist social formations and allows capitalism to expand into new areas. This type of global integration is central to Rosa Luxemburg's theory of imperialism. It has been picked up of late by David Harvey, who uses the term "accumulation by disposession" to encompass not only the process traditionally included under the heading of "primitive accumulation", but also things like the commodification of traditional knowledges through the patent system, and the privatization of public institutions...

Specifically, dollar hegemony allows the U.S. to maintain structural budget and trade deficits without triggering massive domestic inflation. In order to maintain their massive trade surpluses, China and other countries buy up massive amounts of U.S. Treasury bonds, thus underwriting U.S. government spending. This system means, in essence, that "world trade is now a game in which the US produces dollars and the rest of the world produces things that dollars can buy." Yet no-one wants to upset this arrangement by selling their dollar reserves, since the resulting process of global rebalancing would destroy the production of our trading partners at the same time it demolished American consumption.[/b]

Yet the article posed an idea that linked the two concepts - the basic idea of primitive accumulation and dollar hegemony - together with the shattering of the "free market" myth (warning: lengthy quote):


Article
Whatever her minor flaws (to be discussed momentarily), she was absolutely right about the permanence of primitive accumulation – what much of imperialism and the contemporary world is about – in capitalism. Primitive accumulation means accumulation that violates the capitalist ‘law of value’, i.e. non-exchange of equivalents, beginning with the emptying of the English countryside in early modern history (16th to 19th centuries) by what would today be called ‘economic reforms’.

...

Let’s go back to the pure system, only capitalists and workers, no banks, no other distorting ‘titles to wealth’. Let us further imagine that the entire world is capitalist and that everything exchanges at its value. In such a world, with rising productivity over time, a greater and greater mass of capital is set in motion by a smaller total amount of living labour, the exploitation of the latter being (for Marx) the source of all profit. Hence (with many ups and downs along the way) the rate of profit capable of sustaining all those titles, unless adequately supplemented by what I have called ‘loot’, declines historically.

But, as Luxemburg points out in her Anti-Kritik, the falling rate of profit does not prompt the capitalists to ‘hand the factory keys over to the working class’. Her framework enabled her to see how capitalism could ultimately destroy society – barbarism, in her words, or the ‘mutual destruction of the contending classes’ as the Communist Manifesto put it in 1847 – by being required to turn more and more to primitive accumulation and non-reproduction, a prophecy we see materialising before our eyes today.

...

Of course, the pure model of capitalism has never existed and never will exist. As we know, titles to wealth (profit, interest, ground rent), central banks regulating the markets of such titles, and a state enforcing such titles all pre-existed the full blown triumph of capitalism, i.e. the transformation of means of production and labour power into commodities as the dominant source of wealth.

Once we add titles to wealth to the pure model, as Marx does in the middle and concluding sections of vol. III of Capital, we see a different picture. It is precisely because of these titles and because of capitalism’s ability to loot non-capitalist populations and nature that we do NOT, over long cycles, see any mechanical fall in the capitalist rate of profit.

...

We are of course, in 2007, in the midst of probably the biggest fictitious credit bubble in the history of capitalism. What we have been living through, particularly since the early 1970s, has been a huge operation of credit pyramiding, managed by the world’s central banks, aimed at PRESERVING the paper value of existing titles to wealth, and a significant transfer of working class wages and capital not invested in either plant or infrastructure to help prop up those titles. That latter phenomenon is what I call the ‘self-cannibalisation’ of the system when the ‘primitive accumulation’ mechanism turns inward, i.e. non-reproduction, as referred to above.

Luxemburg of course did not live to see either the post-1933 American or German versions of quasi-permanent military production, supported by the taxation of the working class, and still less the post-1944 Bretton Woods system, in which the US financial markets and the US State acquired the ability to tap wealth from every part of the capitalist world (until recently, minus Russia and China) through dollar seigniorage (the latter referring to the ‘free lunch’ acquired through the US’s ‘maintaining empire through bankruptcy’). And quite obviously, credit has increased a thousand times in significance since Luxemburg’s time, as a way of temporarily prolonging business cycles, while changing nothing of the fundamental contradictions in play.

...

The fictitious bubble in the contemporary world is first of all the huge ($3-4 trillion, at current, conservative estimates) dollar ‘overhang’, the net US external debt ($11-12 trillion held abroad, minus $8 trillion in US assets overseas), held mainly in central banks. Everything, from a capitalist viewpoint, must be done to prevent its deflation. The US government is busy depreciating it by its ‘managing empire through bankruptcy’, and its foreign creditors fret at the erosion of their holdings. But they re-lend the money to the US government and US financial markets, making possible more domestic US credit, more consumption, and more imports from America’s creditors, because for now the collapse of the dollar would be their collapse as well, and they as yet see no alternative.

...

Suppose, in some yet to be concretised scenario, China and Japan (who, despite the rhetoric, have ever closer economic ties), along with the tigers (e.g. Korea, Taiwan) and the ‘flying geese’ (Malaysia, Thailand, etc.) manage to constitute an economic bloc, an Asian currency. Given geopolitical realities, and above all US opposition (as evidenced during the 1997-98 Asia crisis, when it nixed the creation of an Asian Monetary Fund proposed by Japan), it’s hard to imagine this happening without some equivalent of World War II in whose outcome the US, Russia and India will all have a stake [...] With the dollar declining by the day on world exchanges, how much longer will the Chinese, the Koreans, the Japanese, the Middle Eastern oil sheiks, the Russians, the Venezuelans, and the Medillin drug cartel – all major holders of dollars – be willing to hold onto a depreciating asset?



Can the shattering of the "free market" myth be explained by just three words: permanent primitive accumulation? I think this phenomenon occurred under Yeltsin and under Deng, but without the "mass" violence and lawlessness (well, probably more of that stuff in Russia, though) associated with traditional concepts of primitive accumulation. I also think it has occurred under Putin and... Chavez (!) in regards to energy (the latter would explain why manufacturing has grown enormously in Venezuela even without a cost to food production).

MarxSchmarx
8th October 2007, 13:36
Sorry for being so dense, but how is the sale and buying of titles a "non-exchange of equivalents"? Although the deed to a title is backed up by the state, in pure capitalism so are contracts between worker and parasite. It's not clear to me how investing in a title is very different than investing in, say, barbie dolls or something in the hopes that they go up in value.

To be fair, titles originating from before the birth of capitalism seem to contradict the capitalist myth, but investing in US Treasury bonds in the 90s seem to be little different from investing in commodities.

This commodification of workers strips them of their right to their labor under the guise of surplus value. After all, aren't workers forced to "transfers" title of their labor to the capitalist under capitalism, in theory and in the real world?

catch
8th October 2007, 19:19
Originally posted by [email protected] 08, 2007 12:36 pm
Sorry for being so dense, but how is the sale and buying of titles a "non-exchange of equivalents"? Although the deed to a title is backed up by the state, in pure capitalism so are contracts between worker and parasite. It's not clear to me how investing in a title is very different than investing in, say, barbie dolls or something in the hopes that they go up in value.

To be fair, titles originating from before the birth of capitalism seem to contradict the capitalist myth, but investing in US Treasury bonds in the 90s seem to be little different from investing in commodities.

This commodification of workers strips them of their right to their labor under the guise of surplus value. After all, aren't workers forced to "transfers" title of their labor to the capitalist under capitalism, in theory and in the real world?
The difference is that the investment in the production of commodities reproduces capital - either labour power via consumption, or the means of production, which allows for the production of more commodities. Investment in anything else is just speculation on that underlying process - betting on things going up or down. So if you buy titles to commodities on the world market (which happens dozens of times before they actually get sold apparently), you'd be right, but it's a level abstracted from actual production and can't in anyway contribute to it at the level of capitalism as a whole.

Die Neue Zeit
14th October 2007, 23:08
Originally posted by [email protected] 08, 2007 11:19 am
Investment in anything else is just speculation on that underlying process - betting on things going up or down. So if you buy titles to commodities on the world market (which happens dozens of times before they actually get sold apparently), you'd be right, but it's a level abstracted from actual production and can't in anyway contribute to it at the level of capitalism as a whole.
^^^ How does that tie into primitive accumulation? :huh:

MarxSchmarx
15th October 2007, 03:19
the investment in the production of commodities reproduces capital - either labour power via consumption

Could you explain how labor power reproduces capital via consumption? To the extent that "speculation in the underlying process" is consumption of capital goods, however many times it may be removed from the actual purchase of the capital goods, isn't this the same principle as me buying, I don't know, a jacket and putting money in the jacket maker's pocket to be reinvested in capital?

Moreover, the trading of titles entails a middle-man population that DOES reproduce capital. For instance, if I buy stock usually there's a broker's fee that gets reinvested in computers, office space, etc... to pay for more brokers by the investment firm. Regenerating the means of production isn't unique to the actual production of material goods alone.




but it's a level abstracted from actual production and can't in anyway contribute to it at the level of capitalism as a whole.

^^^ How does that tie into primitive accumulation?

To the extent that primitive accumulation was facilitated by the holding of titles that had its origin in non-capitalist social systems (e.g. feudal land claims), it seems the argument here would be that primitive accumulation in the form of pre-capitalist legal rights haven't contributed to capitalist development.

But I still find this argument historically and economically untenable.

McCaine
16th October 2007, 19:06
The term "primitive accumulation" is mistranslated anyway, and should really be read as "original accumulation". Of course a process of exploitation and accumulation through violence goes on perpetually within capitalism, there is no doubt about that. The "original accumulation" only refers to the initial process that led to a 'critical mass' of accumulation that enabled capital to be set in motion, so to speak.

p.m.a.
18th October 2007, 02:57
David Harvey, Marxist geographer and CUNY professor, already wrote in his 2003 book The New Imperialism about how neoliberal capitalism employs dispossession as a primary technique of accumulation. Primitive accumulation has become, as Harvey describes, "accumulation by dispossession", and the violent capitalization of previously unavailable resources is now a central tenet to capital's diversion of crisis, as can be seen in the war for the Middle East.

Lynx
18th October 2007, 05:11
And if the bubble bursts, what then? It will be a buyers' market, literally 'a steal'

Die Neue Zeit
18th October 2007, 05:37
Originally posted by Lynx+October 17, 2007 09:11 pm--> (Lynx @ October 17, 2007 09:11 pm) And if the bubble bursts, what then? It will be a buyers' market, literally 'a steal' [/b]
But what about the impact on the capitalist system as a whole? More "primitive" accumulations to keep itself afloat?


McCaine
The term "primitive accumulation" is mistranslated anyway, and should really be read as "original accumulation". Of course a process of exploitation and accumulation through violence goes on perpetually within capitalism, there is no doubt about that. The "original accumulation" only refers to the initial process that led to a 'critical mass' of accumulation that enabled capital to be set in motion, so to speak.

I suspected something along those lines in regards to the translation. :mellow:

Lynx
18th October 2007, 05:56
Originally posted by [email protected] 18, 2007 12:37 am
But what about the impact on the capitalist system as a whole? More "primitive" accumulations to keep itself afloat?
A war?
A pledge not to repeat the 'excesses' of the past?
Misinformation and sound bytes to distract and confuse ordinary workers?
I have no doubt the wealthy remnants of capitalism will be in full media mode, earnestly trying to convince the people that there is no alternative to their way.

Persuading and accumulating, simultaneously :(

Lets hope, none of the above :)

blackstone
18th October 2007, 15:17
Originally posted by [email protected] 16, 2007 01:06 pm
The term "primitive accumulation" is mistranslated anyway, and should really be read as "original accumulation". Of course a process of exploitation and accumulation through violence goes on perpetually within capitalism, there is no doubt about that. The "original accumulation" only refers to the initial process that led to a 'critical mass' of accumulation that enabled capital to be set in motion, so to speak.
Ursprüngliche Akkumulation, translated correctly means, "original accumulation". It's a concept developed by Marx to explain how the capitalist mode of production came into fruition.

Why is this necessary?

Let's look at the general formula of capital which shows the process of circulation of capital


M-C-M'


Where does this initial M come from? Which represents a mass amount of Capital ready for investment?Marx says we must envision an accumulation of capital that was not a consequence of capitalist production but was the starting point of capitalist production. He called this "primitive accumulation of capital".

So what is this primitive or original/previous accumulation of capital?


The discovery of gold and silver in America, the extirpation, enslavement and entombment in mines of the indigenous population of that continent, the beginnings of the conquest and plunder of India, and the conversion of Africa into a preserve for the commercial hunting of blackskins, are all things which characterize the dawn of the era of capitalist production. These idyllic proceedings are the chief moments of primitive accumulation. [Marx 1977, p. 915]

Accumulation by dispossession continues to happen until this day, but primitive accumulation of capital refers specifically, to the initial process that led to a 'critical mass' of accumulation that enabled capitalism into being.

My only concern is when to differentiate between primitive accumulation and accumulation by dispossession..

McCaine
22nd October 2007, 11:50
Originally posted by blackstone

My only concern is when to differentiate between primitive accumulation and accumulation by dispossession..The only difference is that the former is prior to capitalism proper coming into being (because it is its prerequisite), and the latter goes on during capitalism. But the practical implications and meaning of both are the same.

blackstone
22nd October 2007, 14:57
Originally posted by McCaine+October 22, 2007 05:50 am--> (McCaine @ October 22, 2007 05:50 am)
blackstone

My only concern is when to differentiate between primitive accumulation and accumulation by dispossession..The only difference is that the former is prior to capitalism proper coming into being (because it is its prerequisite), and the latter goes on during capitalism. But the practical implications and meaning of both are the same. [/b]
But when historically is the cut off date for capitalism proper coming into being?Early 1800s?Late 1800s? Early 1900s?

ecopolecon
22nd October 2007, 16:03
In my reading of Marx and Luxemburg, the central episode of primitive accumulation is the separation of workers from the means of production through the expropriation of peasant lands. The difference between Marx and Luxemburg is that, for Marx, primitive accumulation is a preparatory stage for capitalism proper, whereas for Luxemburg it is an ongoing process. And this difference is rooted in their opposing conceptions of how "total social reproduction" works under capitalism.

Marx shows in great detail in Capital Vol. 1 how the English peasantry was expropriated by the English lords, with the collusion of the state (for example through vagabondage laws), for the purpose of converting common lands into sheep walks for the wool industry, and other export-oriented proto-capitalist agricultural enterprises. For Marx, it was these acts of outright theft, or "non-economic coercion," in the countryside (along with colonial loot) that laid the foundation for the purely economic coercion of the capitalist mode of production. This "primitive accumulation" was necessary for two reasons: one, it swelled the ranks of the landless proletariat, giving the city bourgeoisie a supply of workers who were neither guild members nor bonded serfs; two, this new urban population hugely increased the domestic market for agricultural produce from the new capitalist farms and "manufactories" themselves. The necessary quantities of labor and capital became available to the English bourgeoisie through the enclosure movement and expanding commerce, and the "really revolutionary road" of the M-C-M' cycle got underway.

Luxemburg generally agreed with Marx's account, but argued that capitalism cannot work as a closed system. Marx predicted overproduction crises and falling rates of profit as an outcome of the M-C-M' cycle, but thought that these contradictions would produce proletarian revolution. But Luxemburg saw (correctly, in my view) that capitalists could postpone revolution through renewed rounds of primitive accumulation: exporting surplus labor and capital to the colonies, and swelling the ranks of the global proletariat by expropriating peasant lands in new territories. Writing in the years before WWI, she observed that the European colonizers in Asia and Africa were repeating the English enclosure movement on an epic scale by forcing peasants to grow cash crops, or work on European-owned plantations, for wages to pay "head taxes"; implementing forced labor regimes no different from the English vagabondage laws; and turning "native" landlords into capitalist farmers. They also trafficked in indentured labor, just like in 17th century England.

I think Luxemburg's argument is borne out by the history of the 20th century, which saw the greatest enclosure of peasant lands in world history, as well as a vast growth of the world's proletariat (defined as those without access to the means of production who work for wages). This process especially ramped up after WWII: in 1950, only 29% of the total world population, and only 16% of population of the Third World, lived in cities. By 2000, around half of the total world population, and 41% of the Third World population, lived in cities. The driving force behind this massive exodus of peasants into the world's cities was, just like in Western Europe in previous centuries, the introduction of capitalist agriculture into peasant societies with feudal property relations. Peasants hand-tilling rice paddies or plots of corn couldn't compete with vast acreages of machine-harvested monocrops, using petrochemical fertilizers, producing for world instead of village markets. This is what was celebrated by Robert McNamara's World Bank as the "Green Revolution."

At the same time, the massive dumping of subsidized US and European grain exports on the Third World (misrepresented as aid, but really a gift to the agribusiness lobbies) threw literally millions of peasants of the land. As we speak, Guatemalan and Honduran farmers are being put out of business by U.S. companies like Cargill and Conagra dumping subsidized corn exports under the CAFTA "free trade agreement." 2 million Mexican farmers were driven off the land by NAFTA, and CAFTA is an extension of that into Central America and the Dominican Republic. (FTAs with Colombia and Peru are next.) Ditto African cotton and sugar producers facing EU export dumping under the CAP. This is the latest round of enclosure, or "accumulation by dispossession," to use Harvey's term.

Of course, old-fashioned landgrabbing by force is still taking place. A look at Colombia, the Congo, Palestine or Iraq disproves the idea that "primitive accumulation" is a one-time stage. Only if you restrict your focus to Europe does that appear to be the case.

One thing that neither Luxemburg nor Marx could foresee was that the proletariat created by new enclosures outside of the heartlands of capitalism could never be absorbed into formal employment as earlier European or American rural-to-urban migrants were. The ratio of formal employment to workers becomes lower the further one travels from the "core" of global capitalism, so that in most of urban Africa, Asia and Latin America the majority of the proletariat is either under-employed, unemployed, or works in the "informal sector." The idea of the "reserve army of labor" or "lumpenproletariat" are a little more useful here, but they are a little overly simplistic.

McCaine
24th October 2007, 12:09
Originally posted by blackstone+October 22, 2007 01:57 pm--> (blackstone @ October 22, 2007 01:57 pm)
Originally posted by [email protected] 22, 2007 05:50 am

blackstone

My only concern is when to differentiate between primitive accumulation and accumulation by dispossession..The only difference is that the former is prior to capitalism proper coming into being (because it is its prerequisite), and the latter goes on during capitalism. But the practical implications and meaning of both are the same.
But when historically is the cut off date for capitalism proper coming into being?Early 1800s?Late 1800s? Early 1900s? [/b]
Well, there is a lot of fighting over that, as can be seen in the Brenner debates for example. But Marx & Engels seem to have situated it, at least for the UK (definitely the first in the world), around the time of the enclosures' peak after the restoration, so that would be the middle to late 18th century.