The English stomach and hunger

[Hiero]

I am reading T.E.Lawerance's book "Seven Pillars of Wisdom", which is about WW1 in the Middle East. He said that the English stomachs over time have devoped a pinching method so that around normal meal times 7am, 12pm and 5pm the English stomach pinches down low to tell us we need to eat. He compares this to the Arab stomach which does not have this pinch and so they were able to go a day or so without food and not feeling the hunger pains of the English soldiers.

[Vargha Poralli]

That IMO is probably stomach sending a message that it is not receiving something it has been used to in that time. I wonder what is the reason for this not working for Arab stomachs. :unsure:

Well my stomach usually pinched around 12:30 - 1.00 pm and 8:30-9.00 PM when I was in normal job(Salesman/Service Representative).

Now that I am going to work in a call center(usually 10+ hrs Night shift I am really intrested how the settings my affect abnormal meal times :lol:

[Hiero]

Maybe it was not a biological thing, just what your body geting used to your daily activity.

[Janus]

Hunger pangs usually occur 12-24 hours after one's last meal so I would assume that people who have greater tolerance (fasting,etc.) do not suffer from them as frequently. Also, the interval between hunger pangs can also depend on the types of food that one eats; experts recommend carbohydrates, which makes up a large portion of the Arab diet, to keep blood sugar levels normal and food absorption consistent.

[selfless]

I wouldn't believe a word of what T.E. Lawrence said. Remember, he has a colonialist world view and mentality. He worked for British imperial interests, fomenting Arab unrest with the promise of 'independence' in order to weaken the Ottoman empire only to abandon them for the continuation of direct colonial control after the war.

[Angry Young Man]

Were they Bedouin? Because when I read a little Roussaeu, and he was glorifying the tribesman, it says about him being more tolerant of pain. Similar with Plato saying that civilisation's luxuries corrupt and weaken. I'm guessing that as Britain was a more 'civilised' (as in settled in townships, not to be culturally elite) and the Bedouins nomadic, the latter would be better prepared to go without food until they can obtain some, which would be at more random intervals.

Have I just ploughed some of the greatest philosophy to answer an obvious question? Throw in a little Locke and Hobbes and yer know.