marx theory of wage being inverse to toil

[kylie]

rkwt

[Valkyrie]

I'd check it out, but I don't know which part you are referring to. Do you have the part on hand?

I would say that if cost on goods comes down, then wages come down proportunately, as the profit loss from the market would have to be made up by scalping off of the cost of labor.

[Valkyrie]

In todays terms, the toughest jobs are usually blue-collar jobs; generally service-oriented, requiring less skill, less education to perform and because of that always less paying. In respect to production, cost, wage and labor... profit is the least sacrificed.

I think back in Marx's day.. increased production always relied on an increased workforce, (as the laborforce were literally the machinery) so therefore the cost of production (with the people being part of that) would go up and therefore wages go down.....






(Edited by Paris at 7:43 pm on April 2, 2003)

[Iepilei]

yeah, I think you've got it backwards. If a person works with higher wages, the owners demand for profit will lend to higher prices. In general, it takes a highly-skilled worker to make a well-developed product, and therefor you end up paying more.

[kylie]

wj

[hazard]

basically, it is through overproduction that the "cost" of goods come down.

overproduction is effected by two main ways

1) the accumulation of unused items, or products, that are produced in massive numbers
2) the constant revolutionization of the tools of production that allows for speedier overproduction

[hazard]

check paragraphs 19 to 23, chapter one, of the MANIFESTO for information on this