Originally posted by DJ-
[email protected] 16, 2007 06:48 pm
-- Did Prague Spring build any actual revolutionary course within itself? Was there a real revolutionary potential waiting to be unleashed in the form of counter-bureaucratic movemet?
-- Do you think it's possible that USSR and the West agreed (secretly) once more on the division of Europe in order to sufficate the mass movements (so the West simply told the Soviets: help us with France and Italy and you can do whatever the hell you want on your side - we won't intervene)?
I don't think I have enough knowledge to answer for the first question.
As for the second question I really don't think that any side had any strength to intervene one another.
Stalin's WW2 decisions are really catastrophic for the USSR.He had to give off too much concessions to the imperialists because of his initial blunders. And also the Soviets faced the full military strength of the Nazis which resulted in more casualties both in Men and Materials than the other sides. And almost all of the puppets installed by him too faced the same problems after all the Nazis considered almost all of them as Sub-Humans. So USSR was not really in a position to bargain anything west.
The west almost every one devastated by the war except US and having lost all the colonies which gave them the means to the power they were once had more things to worry about than intervening anything behind the Iron Curtain. The the specter of Nuclear fall out added to the mutual fear for both sides.
It is rather the mutual weakness each side had was the reason the West non-intervention in Prague Spring and USSR's non intervention in France. Unless otherwise you believe in conspiracy theories.