acornsr4squirrels
26th April 2007, 02:07
Okay, so what I'm trying to do is get some stats that show how the part society that produces everything (the working class) owns the least amount of wealth. Eh... not sure if that was very clear... basically here is how my sentence is going so far:
The richest 10% in America own 68.8% of the wealth, whereas the bottom 40% own only 0.2%, yet it is these people at the bottom who produce most of the goods.
What I'm looking for is statistics to back up the second part of that sentence. I mean, it seems like common sense, but I want proof. Not exactly sure though if there are any stats out there for this (or if it's even possible to actually measure how productive a specific group of people are). The closest I think I've come to something like that is the GDP per capita, but that splits it evenly amongst the population, which is totally not what I'm looking for.
The richest 10% in America own 68.8% of the wealth, whereas the bottom 40% own only 0.2%, yet it is these people at the bottom who produce most of the goods.
What I'm looking for is statistics to back up the second part of that sentence. I mean, it seems like common sense, but I want proof. Not exactly sure though if there are any stats out there for this (or if it's even possible to actually measure how productive a specific group of people are). The closest I think I've come to something like that is the GDP per capita, but that splits it evenly amongst the population, which is totally not what I'm looking for.