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View Full Version : an other question about Marx?



R_P_A_S
13th March 2007, 10:09
The worker becomes an ever increasing cheaper commodity. The more commodities he creates.
With the increasing value of the world of things proceeds in direct proportion the devaluation of the world of men.

I don't get that part.. can someone simplify this for me? thanks

Raúl Duke
13th March 2007, 10:29
Maybe it has something to do with the capitalists constant search for cheaper labor. This forces workers to lower the standard of their wages so to get emplyed (since under capitalism labor is commodified and exploited by capital, as a commodity it has to compete with other similar commodities i.e. other potential worker's labor). However I might be wrong, since waged increased from the end of the 30s to the 50s. (yet this was do to an economic boom. The rate of exploitation probably stayed the same, yet the wage seem higher than before because of the killer profits being made. However, I heard that companies now celebrate record profits by firing people and outsourcing jobs)

R_P_A_S
13th March 2007, 18:45
id like to get more opinions. on this. thanks bro!

RNK
13th March 2007, 20:00
He may even be referring to what we now call "inflation". I don't know if that term was used in the 1800s, though.

( R )evolution
13th March 2007, 22:33
This is what I got off of this one site.

"You may have been told that Marx neglected human feelings, and was
concerned only with the economic benefits of a new system. The
real Marx intended that we should transcend the social conditions
that require us to devote much worry to material things. "With the
increasing value of the world of things, proceeds, in direct
proportion, the devaluation of the world of men." [5]"

http://www.etext.org/Politics/Organized.Th...s/the.real.marx (http://www.etext.org/Politics/Organized.Thoughts/the.real.marx)

This is actually a very good site.

Maybe this helps.