boxinghefner
30th January 2007, 18:57
How relevant is Marx's labour theory of value to modern western society in the context of declining industrial out-put? I'm not suggesting that manufacturing doesn't exist - but it's importance is declining relatively I would argue within countries such as the U.K.
If we do understand a change to have actually occured, as is arguably reflected within the dominance of industries in which there is not the creation of surplus value derived on the basis of produced commodities in exchange (leading to surplus value) - at least not within westernised economies to any large extent. Instead sectors such as the service industry, seem to be dominant - in which large sections of labour are clearly not involved in the process of creating surplus value on the basis Marx initially formulated. What relevance does Marx's labour theory of value have in explaining the accumulation of surplus value in these industries - in a way that is coherent?
Thanks!! Any input on this would be great.
If we do understand a change to have actually occured, as is arguably reflected within the dominance of industries in which there is not the creation of surplus value derived on the basis of produced commodities in exchange (leading to surplus value) - at least not within westernised economies to any large extent. Instead sectors such as the service industry, seem to be dominant - in which large sections of labour are clearly not involved in the process of creating surplus value on the basis Marx initially formulated. What relevance does Marx's labour theory of value have in explaining the accumulation of surplus value in these industries - in a way that is coherent?
Thanks!! Any input on this would be great.