Harry_Perkins
20th December 2006, 19:02
Hi all, I'm new here. Just interested in everyone's thoughts on this topic:
If a worker gets shares in his company and therefore, technically, owns part of the means of production, is he no longer a worker?. If not, why not?. And what are people's views in general with regards to shares and share ownership?. Are we as workers playing into the bosses hands by getting them?.
If a worker gets shares in his company and therefore, technically, owns part of the means of production, is he no longer a worker?. If not, why not?. And what are people's views in general with regards to shares and share ownership?. Are we as workers playing into the bosses hands by getting them?.