boxinghefner
14th December 2006, 18:28
can someone explain this to me.
Right so adherents of classical liberalism argue that we need to avoid absolutism (and thus coercion). Following from this - the best method of avoiding coercion is capitalism ("history suggests only capitalism is necessary condition of historical freedom" (1962:10).
Advocates of this view argue that the way in which that is enacted is via a divison between the economic and the political: "capitalism ... offsets economic from political power" (1962:9). How is this division conceptualised? How is there a division between the economic and the political? I don't understand how that's possible; the two are going to have some sort of relationship. Presumably this division is enacted via the limitation of state involvement in the market? Deregulation of the economy?
[Friedman (1962) Capitalism and Freedom]
Right so adherents of classical liberalism argue that we need to avoid absolutism (and thus coercion). Following from this - the best method of avoiding coercion is capitalism ("history suggests only capitalism is necessary condition of historical freedom" (1962:10).
Advocates of this view argue that the way in which that is enacted is via a divison between the economic and the political: "capitalism ... offsets economic from political power" (1962:9). How is this division conceptualised? How is there a division between the economic and the political? I don't understand how that's possible; the two are going to have some sort of relationship. Presumably this division is enacted via the limitation of state involvement in the market? Deregulation of the economy?
[Friedman (1962) Capitalism and Freedom]