Originally posted by
[email protected] 16 2006, 05:09 AM
Do you agree with the existence of such a tendency?
Well, let the ratio of goods exchangeable for one another be defined as value (as extensively covered in Das Kapital, vol. I, Chapter 1).
Let the set of numbers defined by the infinite summation:
SUM^{infinity}_{n=0} L_{a_{n}} w (1+r)^{n} = X
for every industry sectory. The summation converges to some arbitrary number, and the ratio of these numbers are equal to the value of the good (by the definition of value).
As t->infinity, L_{a_{n}} -> 0, and the arbitrary number (which is actually the sum of the dated labor inputs into the commodity) remains constant. As more goods are created, the value of the goods, represented as V, V->0.
(Note on symbols: w = wage as a fraction of the surplus, r = rate of profit, L_{a_{n}} = Labor input to the a-sector in the economy in the n-th year as a fraction of the whole labor market.)
This supposes that innovation is constant in the capitalist mode of production.