nickdlc
7th October 2006, 06:08
Is there any empirical evidence that a commodities value is the socially neccesary labour time required to produce them? Or on the flip side is there any empirical evidence that commodities exchange by what people or companies subjectively think their value is worth? Half the arguments in OI could be stopped if we had this kind of info and it seems logical that both sides of the argument would benifit greatly if the statistics seemed to be on their side.
I think it's reasonably obvious that employers obtain surplus value from workers which is why apologists say it's reward for risk, entrepenuership blah blah but do we have stats?????
If there isn't this kind of information, why not? It seems as scientific socialists we would want to know the answers to these types of things since science demands empirical evidence! websites/books would be greatly appreciated.
I think it's reasonably obvious that employers obtain surplus value from workers which is why apologists say it's reward for risk, entrepenuership blah blah but do we have stats?????
If there isn't this kind of information, why not? It seems as scientific socialists we would want to know the answers to these types of things since science demands empirical evidence! websites/books would be greatly appreciated.