Originally posted by
[email protected] 12 2006, 10:11 AM
Which to my mind is the crux of the matter and has absolutely nothing to do with semantics. There is an obvious difference between a negotiated surrender and unconditional surrender.
Sure - but you're the only one who's specified unconditional surrender. The topic of the thread is "Did Japan try to surrender." Says nothing about unconditionally.
And why should they have? Their position was clear and had been recently reaffirmed at Potsdam. Given that this was a war of Japanese aggression I see little reason why the US should have suddenly abandoned its position and offered terms.
Gee, in order to avoid killing tens of thousands of civilians? To avoid letting the nuclear genie out of the bottle - setting a precedent that it's OK to use nuclear weapons?
The question should be, why not offer a conditional surrender in order to avoid nuclear weapons. The burden of proof is always on the advocates of greater bloodshed.
And of course, when people justify this decision even today...they're suggesting that Washington likely would use them again in similar conditions. And heck, if Washington will use them in a war that's all but won - Washington will use them even more willingly if a war is being lost or stalemated.
So if that's accepted, if becomes all the more likely that others with nuclear weapons will do likewise.....
And why not offer it?
Here's what happened:
1. The U.S. nuked Japan without even exploring a conditional surrender offer that let the Emperor stay on the throne.
2. The U.S. let the Emperor stay on the throne.
So what was the purpose of insisting on unconditional surrender to start with? Even from Washington's class standpoint?
Additionally: "a war of Japanese aggression"?
No, this was an inter-imperialist war. A war between two imperialist powers over the division of the world - specifically China and the Pacific. Who fired the first shot is not decisive in determining the communist attitude towards a war.
In that context, why support the insistence of one imperialist power for a harsh peace?
Everyone remembered Versailles - a harsh, punitive peace which inflicted a lot of suffering on the German population, especially working people. And which many historians agree, helped set the stage for WWII.
Of course both government and population in both Germany and Japan feared another Versailles. The best way of keeping them from fighting to the death - the populations, if not the governments - was to make it clear there would be no new punitive peace.
The Allied governments were incapable of doing this.
That would have been totally unacceptable to the government and meaningless considering the huge numbers of Japanese civilians already dying in conventional air raids.
Circular reasoning; it was unacceptable because it was unacceptable.
But lemme make it clear I'm not opposing the nuclear bombings in order to support the slaughter of Japanese and German civilians by conventional bombings.
Would a surrender of Germany that offered to retain the status of the Nazi party and Austria have been accepted?
Probably not. Are you saying that's analagous to letting the Emperor stay on the throne?
Your problem, if so, is that the U.S. actually did let him stay.
So if the purpose of nuking Hiroshima and Nagasaki was to avoid such a surrender....then it served no purpose.
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The atomic bombs certainly did accelerate Japanese surrender. But I'd argue that was because the Japanese Navy and warplanes were already beaten militarily.
Terror against civilians, by itself, is rarely successful. It usually backfires and produces anger and an intensified desire to resist rather than surrender to such a despicable enemy.
There are exceptions: if it is applied on a sufficient scale - usually by a government in power - and especially if the enemy is already beaten by other means.
The firebombing of Tokyo - which others have referred to - killed even more people. But it did not make Japan surrender. Because at that time, Japan still had a hope of military victory.
So since Japan was already beaten at sea and in the air, and it was just a matter of how to finalize their surrender, you gotta ask if there were other reasons for the annihilation of Hiroshima and Nagasaki - and especially the short pause between the two.
I'd suggest two reasons:
1. Simple policy inertia: the bombs had been made, with great expense and effort, so of course they were used. With little effort to explore alternatives.
But that kind of policy inertia can only prevail when there is little concern for the lives of thousands of Japanese civilians (and Korean slave laborers) in Hiroshima and Nagasaki.
2. Letting the USSR, and all potential postwar adversaries, see the power of the atomic bombs...and the willingness of the U.S. to use them.
Some people have suggested that Dresden was incinerated for similar reasons - it had little military or industrial significance, but it was in the path of the advancing Red Army. The Soviets got to see what the British Air Force could do.