View Full Version : "The Inquisition"
allen-uk
2nd September 2006, 12:22
Maybe my brain is going soft with age, but I need help on this one.
What is a simple, economic (and thus Marxist) interpretation of the phenomenon of the Inquisition? What forces were the Catholic Church supporting, which ones were they trying to suppress?
I KNOW that it had nothing to do with christianity, god, goodness, evil, etc., etc., but I just can't 'get my head round it'.
I understand Islam far more (even though I am a white old European, brought up in the 'christian faith'), and certainly Islam in its current manifestation as being opposed to western ideology and values.
Pointers in the right direction welcomed.
Allen, London.
Eleutherios
2nd September 2006, 17:41
You know it had nothing to do with Christianity? The Inquisition, the violent attempt to institute Catholicism as the sole legal religion in Spain, had nothing at all to do with Christianity? Whatever you're smoking, pass it this way!
The Inquisition was not solely about economics. True, it was partly about economics, as confiscation of property was a common punishment for heretics, but it had more to do with securing power for the Catholic Church. Since the monarchy was supported by the Catholic Church, whose subjects were obligated to believe the Church about pretty much everything, making Catholicism the sole legal religion was essentially their way of declaring war on all opposition to the monarchy.
bloody_capitalist_sham
3rd September 2006, 04:12
Well,
for a good position on this, i would just stick to the simple things.
Primarily, religion has been used to impose morality, rules on the oppresses class(es) in society.
While the inqesition might not have increased the material wealth of the ruling class in spain at that time, it would have had enough of an effect to either 1.) make sure the ruling class had complete control over the lower class, or 2.) the spanish ruling class might have feared a foriegn ruling class and so saught to maintain rule as effectively as possible.
I have no actual knowledge of this period though.
You know it had nothing to do with Christianity?
Marxists dont think religion is enough of a motivator to bring about this kind of heppening in society, so we look towards economic reasons. For example war dont happen because of religion, it is just used as a way of mobilising the "troops".
Severian
3rd September 2006, 04:36
It also secured the power of the monarchy over the church. The Spanish Inquisition answered only to the crown. And its power ran uniformly throughout Spain, while other arms of the monarchy were limited regionally.
The persecution of Jews and "Marranos" was probably similar in motives and class dynamics to other anti-Jewish persecutions and pogroms in Europe of the period. The pariah group assigned a commercial role in a mostly non-commodity economy was a scapegoat and easy target for the anger of the poor and the greed of the feudal classes. See The Jewish Question: A Marxist Interpretation by Abram Leon for details.
The expulsion of the Moriscos/Moslems is less standard; most of them were tenant farmers. But certainly it increased the power and stability of the monarchy.
*****
Are you only asking about the Spanish Inquisition? 'Cause the (Papal) Inquisition operated in other areas as well, against Christian "heretics" - Protestants and pre-Protestants.
The interpretation of that is fairly straightforward: Protestantism reflected the interests of the rising bourgeoisie and some of the plebeian interests allied with it. Catholicism was the ideology of the feudal classes.
OK, that's the postage-stamp version, and there are all kinds of exceptions.
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