black magick hustla
20th August 2006, 09:26
I have been wondering about this lately.
Does capitalism inherently evolves into an anti-racist force?
Modern capitalism certainly is a bit different from its 19th cenutry counterpart. With the advent of the mass media and recently the internet, the bourgeosie is certainly becoming a much more global and unified entitiy, We do not see them as adhered to patriotic metababble and racial nonsense, rather, we see them as a unified force that is separating from nationalistic consciousness that is adopting a more global consciousness.
I remember Marx arguing that the workingman doesn't have a country.
Does the bourgeosie have a country?
Certainly, it is against the interest of the bourgeosie to discriminate people based on race, because that would end in alienating potential consumers because of a backward metaphysical concept.
Isn't discrimination based on race being superseded completely by discrimination based on capital?
Certainly minorities are still opressed in first world advanced countries, but this opression is lessening as the capitalist [which is not stupid] istops caring about race or nation, and rather, they are becoming much more interested in capital.
Certainly, before having capital didn't meant as much as having noble blood.
Are we reaching an age were race is becoming less and less of an issue, and instead it is being superseded by capital as the sole determinant of social value?
Place your thoughts.
edit: fuck, someone move this to theory or discrimation
Does capitalism inherently evolves into an anti-racist force?
Modern capitalism certainly is a bit different from its 19th cenutry counterpart. With the advent of the mass media and recently the internet, the bourgeosie is certainly becoming a much more global and unified entitiy, We do not see them as adhered to patriotic metababble and racial nonsense, rather, we see them as a unified force that is separating from nationalistic consciousness that is adopting a more global consciousness.
I remember Marx arguing that the workingman doesn't have a country.
Does the bourgeosie have a country?
Certainly, it is against the interest of the bourgeosie to discriminate people based on race, because that would end in alienating potential consumers because of a backward metaphysical concept.
Isn't discrimination based on race being superseded completely by discrimination based on capital?
Certainly minorities are still opressed in first world advanced countries, but this opression is lessening as the capitalist [which is not stupid] istops caring about race or nation, and rather, they are becoming much more interested in capital.
Certainly, before having capital didn't meant as much as having noble blood.
Are we reaching an age were race is becoming less and less of an issue, and instead it is being superseded by capital as the sole determinant of social value?
Place your thoughts.
edit: fuck, someone move this to theory or discrimation