Karl Marx's Camel
7th July 2006, 13:49
Quite a few commentators has said that one of the reasons Ollanto Humala lost in Peru's elections, was due to Chavez's interference.
I remember reading yesterday that Calderon went higher up in the polls when he accused Obrador of being a an ally of Chavez.
And Fidel himself is not that popular in South America, either (although probably higher than in the West). I remember reading that 4,8 out of 10 South Americans approve of him (compared to Bush's 4,0).
I talked to a person today, and he mentioned that the most helpful way to win elections in South America today, must be to say that you are an opponent of Chavez.
And then I thought...
In Brazil, Argentina, Chile.. It seems that the people have elected more "moderate persons". And in Peru, Mexico and Colombia, more conservatives. Why do you think that is, in a continent where so many are poor and have a disdain for the status quo? Why is not Chavez and other radicals, more popular in South America? Why do the people keep electing capitalist reformers?
I remember reading yesterday that Calderon went higher up in the polls when he accused Obrador of being a an ally of Chavez.
And Fidel himself is not that popular in South America, either (although probably higher than in the West). I remember reading that 4,8 out of 10 South Americans approve of him (compared to Bush's 4,0).
I talked to a person today, and he mentioned that the most helpful way to win elections in South America today, must be to say that you are an opponent of Chavez.
And then I thought...
In Brazil, Argentina, Chile.. It seems that the people have elected more "moderate persons". And in Peru, Mexico and Colombia, more conservatives. Why do you think that is, in a continent where so many are poor and have a disdain for the status quo? Why is not Chavez and other radicals, more popular in South America? Why do the people keep electing capitalist reformers?