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R_P_A_S
12th June 2006, 22:21
One of the things that got me into politics and to find out more about socialism etc. was that fact that Mexico and the U.S. are so similar in many ways. Not only do we share a border. But land, some culture left from that. We both had cival wars and independence from european countries around the same times. BUT we ended up being the poor ones. Mexico was and always has been lagging behind an over developt United States. Why? What happened? what went wrong from the late 1700's to today? Why arent we as equally powerful and why are we (mexico) the "poor ones" out the two?

As much blame I want to give the United States. I have to give Mexico just as much or even more. Our bad presidents and leaders who sold out the people, practically gave away land and the country for personal monetary compensation from the U.S. and other european states.

Ever since mexico's first independence they had been ran by curruptive individuals that only sought self empowerment and enrichment it seems like. we never really got there because the politicians the upper class were to busy "hooking themselves up" while exploiting the people.

Ok so what about the United States? how do you call that a revolution and independence. How come the slaves and the indians didnt fight a war of independence agains the new United States. wouldnt that made more sence? it wasn't white mexican/spaniards who fought the war against spain for mexico. it was mestizos and some indegeous people. right?

when the U.S. won its freedom and independence from England they were only thinking about the white people.

blah! i gotta go to class.. to be continued.!!

black magick hustla
13th June 2006, 01:25
Saludos camarada! Yo también soy de México!


You cannot compare US's socio-economic history to the one of Mexico, they have very different origins.

First and foremost America became a "white" country in the sense that european immigrants didn't mix with the native american population. While they were some cultural and linguistical between the american colonists, they weren't that huge compared to the linguistical and cultural differences between the different mexican indigenous groups. While spanish since the independece has been the "official mexican language", the teaching of spanish didn't become a serious task until the Porfiriato.

This cultural and linguistical differences made it impossible to form a strong mexican state. In the 19th century a coahuilense wouldn't feel mexicano.

Also mexican indigenous groups didn't have the concept of private property in the 19th century. While americans already into all that entrepeneaur-competition thing, mexicans lived communally and most of them were under the thumb of mighty terratenientes. English colonists came from england, thus it is logical that they already had the concept of private property- Mexico was almost completely feudal in the 19th century.

I could go on and on, but I think this is enough for now.

Rawthentic
15th June 2006, 01:08
You put it quite well Marmot. In response, I believe the reason behind the fact that the US, is far more developed than Mexico, is besides other factors such as land, the capitalist/imperialist system is based on competition, with one coming out on top in front of the other. The US has beat Mexico, the governments have allowed free trade to progress, and Mexico has been plundered by US capital.

fickle_indeed
15th June 2006, 01:32
And now the United States is complaining about "illegal" immagrants exploiting our economy.

R_P_A_S
15th June 2006, 02:16
Originally posted by [email protected] 12 2006, 10:26 PM
While they were some cultural and linguistical between the american colonists, they weren't that huge compared to the linguistical and cultural differences between the different mexican indigenous groups. While spanish since the independece has been the "official mexican language", the teaching of spanish didn't become a serious task until the Porfiriato.


i dont get this part. can you break it down? im sorry yes i am slow!

JC1
15th June 2006, 02:23
Maramot got to everything, I think. I'll add that there was cut off date for capitalist development in third world countries around 1900-102. After that, foriegn capital began to dominate third world country's TO THE MAX.

Even country's that developed industry (S. Korea, China, India, Tawain, et cet era) generaly don't own any of that industry, so the wealth stay's in mostly imperialist countries.