Originally posted by ScottishPinko+--> (ScottishPinko)If these guys had taken over, what do you guys think the situation would be today? Better? Worse? A hole in the ground?[/b]
I suspect you're referring to the Mensheviks' here, and to tell the truth, I haven't a clue! :lol:
A Menshevik dominated Government, may have developed Russia effectively, or they might have capitulated to the interests of foreign capital -- lowering Russia to the status of a colony! :o
A more interesting scenario, in my opinion anyway, is what would have happened if the foreign investment that Lenin asked of in 1923 (?) had been given. Would Russia have formerly "renounced" its Socialist rhetoric? ....or would they "do a China" -- i.e. call Capitalism "Socialism with Chinese (in this case Russian) characteristics".
Another interesting scenario would have been if the Workers' Opposition had won at the 10th congress. Would Russia have functioned, albeit temporarily, as a communist society, or, would the the primitive levels of the productive forces in Russia have made everything go to shit, right away.
Another potentially interesting scenario would have been if the Bolsheviks' had directed their energy away from recapturing certain parts of the Russian Empire and instead supplied support -- financial and perhaps military -- to the uprisings in both Finland and Germany.
All interesting scenarios, but unfortunately, all scenarios that we can only speculate on. :(
Originally posted by Xanthus+--> (Xanthus)The mode of production was quite concretely proletarian, even though it was heavily corrupted as a bureaucracy formed.[/b]
Really???
As poor as I am in the field of Marxist economics, one thing I do know, is that wage-labour which was the predominant (maybe only?) form of labour in Russia from 1917 onwards is a hallmark of a Capitalist mode of production.
A proletarian mode of production as it were, would be one where the individual Marx referred too, is free to be an individual -- i.e. instead of doing set labour, s/he does whatever they find enjoyable as an individual.
I'm not aware of anything like this in the Soviet Union, indeed if I'm not mistaken, the Russian Constitution stated that every able person must do some form of set labour -- i.e. compulsory wage-labour.
There wasn't even the dole! :o
Of course, if you have any information that disputes this, I would be very grateful if you were to present it. :)
Originally posted by Xanthus
....the USSR had none of these things.
There was, as far as I know, "private enterprise", farming comes to mind, "private ownership", there still some, if limited, private property in place and to some degree or another, goods were still sold under a "market capitalism" type system, albeit a highly regulated Market.
Even under Stalin, I'm unaware of any of this changing and post-1956, there was quite a lot of "private enterprise".
Originally posted by Ted Grant
The theme of Trotsky is sufficiently clear. The struggle for the surplus product can be waged not only between different classes, but between different strata and different groupings representing the same class.
Only if you accept that the "bureaucracy" was part of the working class, which I don't accept.
For instance, Trotsky himself states....
Originally posted by Trotsky
The privileges of the bureaucacy have a different source of origin. The bureaucracy took for itself that part of the national income which it could secure either by the exercise of force or of its authority or by direct intervention in economic relations. In the matter of the national surplus product the bureaucracy and the petty bourgeoisie quickly changed from alliance to enmity. The control of the surplus product opened the bureaucracy's road to power.
Is this not an accurate description of how any bourgeoisie acts?
Don't other Capitalists also take for themselves "that part of the national income which it could secure either by the exercise of force or of its authority or by direct intervention in economic relations"? ....in other words, they (the bourgeois) take a portion of the workers labour value for themselves and they maintain this system -- social relation -- through either the "exercise of force" or the threat of force.
Indeed, it is through this system that the bourgeois is able to rise to power and to stay in power -- "The control of the surplus product opened the bureaucracy's road to power."
So what exactly makes the "bureaucracy" represent the same class, the working class, and not perform the function of a bourgeois? ....low wages? :lol:
The Soviet bureaucracies relationship to the means of production was that of a de facto owner. And for this reason, I see no way you could consider them anything other than a nascent bourgeois.
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What I meant is that it still operated under a planned economy with a state monopoly in all industries....
In all industries? ....I'm pretty sure there were some petty-capitalists operating throughout the existence of the Soviet Union.
Aside from that, the "Black Market" was rather large and undeniably Capitalist in its operations.
Indeed, if you're definition of a "socialist mode of production" is one where the economy is Nationalised and "planned" -- every economy is "planned" -- was the Coal Industry in Britain under a "socialist mode of production" before Thatcher?
Marxism-Leninism
Capitalism is basically an economic system in which the anarchy of production reigns, the anarchy of production did not reign in the USSR, i.e., it was not capitalist.
It's also an economic system where the predominant form of labour is wage-labour, something which the Soviet Union had throughout its existence.
On a side note, in your opinion, when was Capitalism "restored" in Russia?....1923? ....1956? ....1991?