Entrails Konfetti
7th June 2005, 01:07
I'm pretty sure most of you are familiar with the formula of valourized capital.
C'= c + v + s
C' means valourized capital,capital with profit attached
c means contant capital,a.k.a means of production
v means variable capital ,a.k.a labour-power
s means surplus value ,a.k.a profit
Marx, mentions that, when the labourer produced a commody most of it go to pay for the means of production .If you were to look at it in proportions to hourly wages, lets say your working about 10 hrs ,6hrs productions goes to pay off constant capital,2hrs production goes to you,the other 2 goes to the capitalist.
But, only the contrary the labourer in the Victorian/Edwardian ages worked longer than usual and was seldom paid for the extra hours they put in,thus creating even more profit for the factory-owner.
Marx however argues that the last 2 hours of this shift goes right to the capitalists pockett. Do we know that the labourer wasn't working over time and not being paid,was that a factor here? Or was he measuring the "standard" working day.
If it is the standard case, what you think of the idea of...
C"=c + s + t ?
(t in this case is tax/public spending .)
Would this work, could this maintain all the public insitituions ?
The commodities would be cheaper,because obviously tax takes the of the surplus value and there wouldn't need to be a sales tax placed upon it .
What do you think ?
C'= c + v + s
C' means valourized capital,capital with profit attached
c means contant capital,a.k.a means of production
v means variable capital ,a.k.a labour-power
s means surplus value ,a.k.a profit
Marx, mentions that, when the labourer produced a commody most of it go to pay for the means of production .If you were to look at it in proportions to hourly wages, lets say your working about 10 hrs ,6hrs productions goes to pay off constant capital,2hrs production goes to you,the other 2 goes to the capitalist.
But, only the contrary the labourer in the Victorian/Edwardian ages worked longer than usual and was seldom paid for the extra hours they put in,thus creating even more profit for the factory-owner.
Marx however argues that the last 2 hours of this shift goes right to the capitalists pockett. Do we know that the labourer wasn't working over time and not being paid,was that a factor here? Or was he measuring the "standard" working day.
If it is the standard case, what you think of the idea of...
C"=c + s + t ?
(t in this case is tax/public spending .)
Would this work, could this maintain all the public insitituions ?
The commodities would be cheaper,because obviously tax takes the of the surplus value and there wouldn't need to be a sales tax placed upon it .
What do you think ?