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View Full Version : Does this still apply ?



Entrails Konfetti
7th June 2005, 01:07
I'm pretty sure most of you are familiar with the formula of valourized capital.

C'= c + v + s

C' means valourized capital,capital with profit attached

c means contant capital,a.k.a means of production

v means variable capital ,a.k.a labour-power

s means surplus value ,a.k.a profit

Marx, mentions that, when the labourer produced a commody most of it go to pay for the means of production .If you were to look at it in proportions to hourly wages, lets say your working about 10 hrs ,6hrs productions goes to pay off constant capital,2hrs production goes to you,the other 2 goes to the capitalist.

But, only the contrary the labourer in the Victorian/Edwardian ages worked longer than usual and was seldom paid for the extra hours they put in,thus creating even more profit for the factory-owner.

Marx however argues that the last 2 hours of this shift goes right to the capitalists pockett. Do we know that the labourer wasn't working over time and not being paid,was that a factor here? Or was he measuring the "standard" working day.

If it is the standard case, what you think of the idea of...

C"=c + s + t ?

(t in this case is tax/public spending .)

Would this work, could this maintain all the public insitituions ?

The commodities would be cheaper,because obviously tax takes the of the surplus value and there wouldn't need to be a sales tax placed upon it .

What do you think ?

Severian
14th June 2005, 02:08
Taxes are part of surplus-value. Appropriated by the state on behalf of the capitalist class as a whole. Rent and interest is also part of surplus-value.

Whether the worker is paid by the hour, extra for overtime, whatever, doesn't matter. The point is, that more value is produced than is paid in wages.

When Marx divided the working day into necessary-labor and surplus-labor, that's just one way of measuring the proportions between value produced, wages, and surplus-value.

If anything, there is more surplus-labor nowadays, because the productivity of labor has increased tremendously. So we produce enough to feed ourselves in the first part of the day, and have more of the day left to generate profits for the bosses. Shorter workday and higher pay reduces their profits, but that hasn't kept up with the increase in productivity.