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jake_crocker
18th May 2005, 22:07
Okay guys, here's an interesting one.

The west, meaning Europeans and Americans and others with countries consumed with the culture of the former have always assumed the idea that there is objective knowledge and moral standards which are beyond even human ability to see in a different manner.

This western metaphysic assumes that there is objectivity - but both science and religion believe this. Why should there be a reality which we all see in the same way? Language is uncertain, unfortunately for Wittgenstein, according to the post structuralists.

We use this uncertain language, which is prone to individual interpretations senses which it could be argued are wholly subjective. How can we hope to convey meaning to one another, of our same species, and even more unlikely create knowledge which is true beyond the reaches of our species?

I'd be interested to see what you guys think :D

Monty Cantsin
20th May 2005, 15:23
The Western Metaphysic; Philosophy and Science, Is there any overlap between the two?

All Western metaphysicians don’t all accept the existence of an objective/subjective dichotomy such as Edmund Husserl. But to answer you’re question on philosophy and science you’d have to define the terms for me thus heading into philosophy of science and meta-philosophy. But myself I just take the normal popperian line of definition between science and philosophy but I wouldn’t extent the burden of proof needed for natural science to human sciences which I think philosophical discourse covers. I see philosophy as the conversion of all lines of enquires, where we workout how it applies to us and how we uses the information in practice.