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new democracy
14th August 2002, 05:37
allot of communists here say that one of the reasons that every communist revolution failed is becuase the countries were not industrialised enough. if the countries were industrialised than communism would work? explain how.

Lefty
14th August 2002, 20:52
i am not the most versed in communist/socialist theories, but as i understand it, industrialized countries have more to share amongst the people, and sharing is what communism is all about (i.e. giving back to the people once you have what you need) So, the country that is revolutionized should have a lot of stuff to share and hence help the people. And when a country doesnt have the stuff to help the people, the people dont get helped, and go "screw this" and go back to capitalism. Am i right? That was just a wild guess.

vox
15th August 2002, 01:43
Just off the top of my head....

Industrialization is necessary because it's only through the capacity of over-production (which is, actually, a problem in capitalist economies) that the proletariat can reap the benefit from its work. When the means of production are available to provide everyone with more than they need, then the question becomes why everyone doesn't HAVE more than they need.

In subsistence economies, the condition of over-production does not exist. The workers live on what they produce. In capitlist economies, the workers live on LESS than they produce, the other part being appropriated by the capitalist in the name of property rights.

When a society has the means of production to over produce, then the futlilty of over-poduction becomes apparent to all but the capitalist class.

After the period of capitalist expansion (with its industrialization and division of labor) the means are to generate more than is needed for life. In this circumstance, the proletariat can sieze the means of production and work for itself rather than the capitalist.

vox