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cormacobear
21st November 2004, 15:35
http://www.capitalism.org/ On this site they have a list of topics and their propagandist responses.
So let's see if it will stand up to Scrutiny.

"Labor and Minimum Wages
Doesn't capitalism lead to the lower labor wages?
No. Under capitalism ones wages depend on how much one can produce. That is why Michael Jordan -- or a doctor -- gets paid millions of dollars more then the minimum wage. It depends on how well and how much they produce. The reason why factory laborers receive more wages in America is because they are rendered more productive by productive use of capital. "

American productivity is increaseing due to technology, yet wages are falling.
Capitalist economic theory considers Labour a commodity, subject to the same supply and demand, construct as all other commodities. In this way Labourers are forced to compete withh one another for jobs, this competition drives down wages.
“ If in such a country the wages of labour had ever been more than sufficient to maintain the labourer, and enable him to bring up a family, the competition of the labourers and interest of the masters would soon reduce them to this rate which is consistant with the common humanity.” (Smith, Pg. 75) What he's describing is the Capitalist theory that if there are too many workers (unemployment), that do to the lowering of wages through competition that they will starve to death bring the numbers of workers back down. This is immoral in the extreme.

"Isn't the solution to low wages minimum wage laws?
If passing minimum wage laws are the secret to raising wages, then why doesn't the government make everybody rich by setting the wage to a million dollars? Would this solve poverty in third world countries, or would this make everyone -- who produces less then the million dollar minimum wage -- unemployable? The truth is that those who don't produce enough to merit the minimum wage will become unemployed by such laws, and those who do produce more then the minimum wage don't need such laws. If a laborer -- say Michael Jordan -- is not paid enough for what he produces, then someone else will hire him an pay him more. It is competition for labor -- that produces -- that pushes wages up."

If this were true the competition in overpopulated countries would drive the price of labour through the roof, instead overpopulated countries have the lowes wages on the planet. The minimum wage is a capitalist control to prevent the cost of government from skyrocketing. Since the cost of poverty (re-education, crime, falling real estate value, etc.)is greater than the meager outset of paying the minimum wage. when capital is collectively owned everyones wages are determined by necescity, and the productivity of the society, rather than Being determined by your economic status and the number of people in your region.

Micheal jordan is a stupid example, he's an anecdote, the exception rather than the rule.

"What sets prices of labor under capitalism?
The same system that sets prices. Not any particular businessman, but the free-market. It is competition between businesses for labor that pushes wages up; it is competition between laborers that pushes wages down (to reduce this competition between laborers unions create "union shops" which prevent non-union members from competing with them, by banning non-union members from working in the unionized field)."

The competition for labourers only brings up wages where there is competion for labourers, since there is always unemployment, and with the ability to move production from region to region beeing a current reality, we must look at the fact the are 16 billion people on the planet, most unemployed. Therefore there is no competition for labourers only for jobs.

"Don't laborers have a right to a share of the capitalist's profits, in addition to their wages?
Why are the laborers who demand a share in the capitalist's profits, silent in demanding their "share" when he incurs losses? Why don't they cry out and demand that they get to receive a share in those losses? If labor is the sole cause of all profit, then is it not also the sole cause of all losses? A moments reflection will point out that laborers are only responsible for their job description -- they are not directly responsible for the losses of a business -- and that the cause of an enterprise's losses lies essentially with the owner, as do the profits.

That a businessmen pays a worker less wages than the worker feels he deserves is not exploitation, as the worker is free to leave his job and look elsewhere for a higher paying one, if he thinks that someone can give him a better job for a better wage. Let any worker in Soviet Russia, Nazi Germany, or Communist China try to attempt such a feat as leaving his job without permission of the state, and he will soon find what exploitation really means."

The owner of capital demands a share of the products the worker produces, and the worker suffers more when losses occur because he will lose his job. And clearly a loss of capital is far more harmfull to the poor than the more affluent.

In any contract where labour and capital is not devided equatibly, someone is being exploited.

When Capital is collectively owned it is collectively invested so the costs of any losses are devided among millions and hardly felt by any. rather in a Capitalist system individuals don't invest if there has been losses in market sectors, this causes a recession to become a depression. And over invest when things are good, falsly inflating the investment market and causeing general inflation.
This capitalist cycle of boom and bust is felt far more by the poor than the wealthy who can better survive periods without income.

References:
Smith, Adam. “An Inquiry Into the Nature and Causes of the Wealth of Nations”, Edited By C J Bullock PhD.,_© 1909 by P.F. Collier & Son, New York

cormacobear
21st November 2004, 15:37
Feel free to go to the site and grab a topic of your own to critique. I'll try to get to as many as I can over the next few weeks. :D

h&s
21st November 2004, 19:25
Hey go on the forum - it can be a laugh! Like most capitalist forums they let you stay and argue with them for a while, then when they realise they are wrong they start to edit your posts to make you look like a genocidal (their word) Stalinist, then they delete all of your posts and ban you!

cormacobear
24th November 2004, 20:17
Capitalism is a social system based on the recognition of individual rights

What is capitalism?
Capitalism is a social system based on the recognition of individual rights, including property rights, in which all property is privately owned. Under capitalism the state is separated from economics (production and trade), just like the state is separated from religion. Capitalism is the system of of laissez faire. It is the system of political freedom.

Capitalism is an economic system based on concentration of capital, and manipulation of the majority that the wealthy minority may benefit more fully from a society's wealth.Under capitalism the management of large corperations control public opinion, and control government through campaign financing and the funding for lobby groups.Capitalism is the system of Laissez Faire, where we are expected to hope everything works out rather than preventing disasters, where the poor are expected to survive the Bboom and bust system, while the wealthy just move their capital around.It is a system that protects the single right of private property over all other rights. It is a system where the majority are refused the economic capability to excersize most of their rights.

What is a capitalist?
An advocate of laissez-faire is known as a capitalist, e.g., novelist Ayn Rand is a capitalist; e.g., though economically Engels came from a wealthy background, politically he is recognized as a socialist/communist because of his ideas; e.g., billionaire George Soros is not a capitalist as he does not advocate capitalism, but he advocates some form of a mixed economy statism. Soros like Ted Turner is a "socialist at heart."

A capitalist is either to ignorant to realize the harm and manipulation that are the key stones of capitalist ideology, or are from a wealthy elitist class that is fueled by greed and lust for power, lacking all morals in that there is no maximum amount of harm they are willing to commit to increase their wealth and power. Proponents of mixed economies like Canada's are fence sitters who are those benefitting from the system and are smart enough to feel guilty, but remain too greedy to fix the problems of inequality.

cormacobear
24th November 2004, 20:42
Collectivism holds that the individual is not an end to himself, but is only a tool to serve the ends of the group.
What is the key principle underlying collectivism?
The theory of collectivism (in all its variants) holds that man is not an end to himself, but is only a tool to serve the ends of others. Collectivism, unlike individualism, holds the group as the primary, and the standard of moral value. Whether that group is a dictator's gang, the nation, society, the race, (the) god(s), the majority, the community, the tribe, etc., is irrelevant -- the point is that man in principle is a sacrificial victim, whose only value is his ability to sacrifice his happiness for the will of the "group".

Collectivism in the majority of it's variants beleives that all men deserve the fundamental human rights( of which the right to private property is not fundamental, and stands in contrast to the rights that are), and that with these rights comes the responsibility of ensureing all men have them. whether that group is a neighborhood, nation or global community the point is that capitalism forces man to sell his labour much the same as a slave or subject, constantly competing with the wealthy for his very survival, rather than a collecte system wher all men benefit equally from a society's wealth accepting that with the guantee of survival comes the responsibilty to work towards advancing the whole of society that your and all others children may have a brighter future.

What is the opposite of collectivism?
The opposite of collectivism is individualism. Individualism declares that each and every man, may live his own life for his own happiness, as an end to himself. Politically, the result of such as principle is capitalism: a social system where the individual does not live by permission of others, but by inalienable right.

The opposite of collectivism is feudalism in all it's forms including fascism and capitalism. Whereby a small majority control virtually all the wealth of a society and rule through direct control or the maintanence of an oligarchy subject to the will of the wealthy. Individualism declares that each man may be cruel and competitive, that the majority of men must be refused an equal share of happiness as they are forced to struggle for their daily survival.

Vladimir_Iljich_Ivanov_Lenin
2nd December 2004, 14:17
Isn't capitalism a system of exploitation?
If "exploitation" means increasing the standard of living of the masses, tripling the life span of the average man, and bringing wealth and prosperity to all those who live under it, then capitalism is a system of "exploitation." If "exploitation" means making the masses slaves -- then I refer one to Nazi Germany, the Soviet Union and Communist China.

They raise the standart of living only for themselves, the advanced capitalist nations exploit people from the 3rd world to achieve that. The claim they bring wealth and prosperity to everyone who lives under it is idiotic, most of the 3rd world live under capitalism, yet they dont see the "wealth" and "prosperity" of the advanced capitalist nations. Capitalism exists to make major advances in technology to increase the money they can get. Industrialization tripled the amount of money that could be gained. Increasing the life span and making sure the people of the avanced capitalist nations have "high" life standarts in comparison to the 3rd world is neccesary to keep power. They finance it from the finance capital they exploit from the 3rd world. Nazi germany used a capitalist system, american corporations invested heavily in german industry which only increased the amount of people they killed during WW2.

cormacobear
3rd December 2004, 06:10
Inheritance
Does a man have a right to give his wealth to his children?
The right to dispose of one's income belongs to the producer, and if he wishes to give it to an heir, a charity, or to flush it down the toilet -- that is the producer's right. It is not any of your concern, and it certainly is not the concern of the government.

Wealth is a measure of commodities, commodities are produced with labour not capital. Therefore all income is produced by the laborourer. yet in a capitalist system the invester not the labourer determines where profit goes. On this website you suggest capitalism is designed to reward merit. Yet logic allows us to say being born with rich perants is not a measure of an individuals merit, therefore in no responsible society should he be vastly rewarded over an equal, for he is no more deserving. Any wealth created and retained in the course of a lifetime should be returned to the society it was withdrawn from. The passage of wealth can be done in a compassionate way and still prevent gross concentration of wealth.

Doesn't capitalism "centralize" wealth via inheritance?
As wealth is not a static quantity, to be looted and stolen, the wealth that you can earn is not affected by how much wealth someone else has, creates, or inherits. Since wealth is the result of man's mind, as long as someone has a mind, and is left free to use it, wealth is his to create.

As the creation of wealth is not automatic, those who cannot manage their wealth, will soon lose it. As evidence of this fact witness what happens when a rich man passes on his money to a worthless heir -- the heir soon loses it. Such is the meaning behind the popular American saying, "from shirtsleeves to shirtsleeves in three generations."

Wealth is the direct creation of productivity, as productivity increases the amount of wealth in a given currency corresponds. Due to education an automation, in most country's productivity has risen dramatically. Yet the proportional cencentration of wealth has not corresponded. Conversely the same 10% symply own more now, while investing at a rate of their own determining.

While it is possible to quickly lose a large inheritance that situation is the exception rather than a rule.

Orange Juche
3rd December 2004, 06:37
I think a bunch of us should go on there and just prove them wrong.

Vladimir_Iljich_Ivanov_Lenin
3rd December 2004, 13:24
H&S you sick bastard, lose that link.

CaptinAnarchy124
5th December 2004, 18:53
>>Anarchism is not a form of capitalism; anarchism is a form of collectivism, where individual rights are subject to the rule of competing gangs.<<

Its funny, because is not capitalism where the people are subject to the rule of competing gangs called Corporations? Although I agree, Anarchism is not or has any thing connected to Capitalism, except one thing struck me; the quote that is on their main page is from Ayn Rand, a so called "Anarcho-Capitalist."