Originally posted by
[email protected] 24 2004, 12:25 PM
I do not contest this, but I maintain that a capitalist may or may not use wage labor.
Well, you can think that, but from a Marxist point of view it's just not right. I explained to you the reasons for this, but I'll try once again.
To be a Capitalist, one must:
*benefit from wage labour either directly or indirectly. Either by employing wage-slavery, profiting unjustly from other people's labour, or by profiting off of previous labour such as Capital gained from wage slavery.
and:
*have the priviliged position in this society that even petty-bourgeois employers are not afforded, the ability to opt out of work entirely and the option to simply live off of one's accumulated wealth. Of course this too can be traced to previously exploited labour, be it inheritance from a Capitalist father or saving up from previous exploitation.
The requirements to be a capitalist does not require anything more than the ownership of capital. This is one of the main differences between capitalism and feudalism, the industrial revolution created more capital than just artisan-shops and farms/mines (i.e. land).
False. In today's society, many of the more priviliged workers own Capital. Especially if they work in a company that provides "stock-options" to their workers as an incentive. These things are designed to blur class-distinctions precisely to achieve the effect you are giving them. If one is unsure where the class lines fall, one doesn't know whose interests lie where, and it make class unity that much harder. Point is, you wouldn't consider a worker at starbucks a Capitalist. Thus this definition is false.
No, because the drug dealer owns and labors the capital. In this case the capital is the plants which turn into drugs. He too labors on creating the drugs, the commodity from the capital sold for money. Does a petit-bourgeois own property? No, but a capitalist does!
Most people own property, worker, petit-bourgeois or Capitalist. Petit-bourgeois definitely do own Capital, if that was what you meant.
I disagree, one can be a capitalist and choose to hire people with the exploiting wage etc. OR choose not to hire anyone. THe latter the capitalist gets richer the former he doesn't get as much, in theory. That is if he works as hard as several dozen people.
How often have you heard of a "Capitalist" working on his own and becoming sucessful? Once again, without the necessary class dynamic between employing class and working class, there can be no Capitalist. If he does it himself there's no exploitation, no surplus value, so there is no way you could reasonably consider him a Capitalist.
I totally disagree, there can be totally automated factories, would this simply be the means of production without any labor? Well, no. Labor is needed to create a commodity as marx pointed out, or else there would be no use-value and hence no exchange-value. Ergo, wage labor is not needed for a capitalist to be one.
Wrong again. There are no totally automated factories just yet. All machines still need workers and engineers to function properly. They need maintanence, they need programming, they need operating by a human hand. Thus, you are twisting and reaching. Machines are never considered "labour".
I believe Marx called it natural capital. The process which makes the drugs, i.e. the means of production needed to do so, would be the "real" capital. But both are still capital, nonetheless.
A miniscule amount of capital, which, once again is less than the mediocre stock options some labourers get. You are blowing this "capital" way out of proportion. Remember we're talking about 5 or 6 small plants in a bedroom here.
I said he was both capitalist and worker, I didn't say anything about being a boss.
No, you didn't but you spoke of him paying himself a wage, implying a boss. It doesn't really matter though, cause all Capitalists are bosses. One cannot be both Capitalist and worker.