Jacob Cliff
28th December 2015, 06:42
Given my growing distaste for the general Trotskyist, Left Communist and Marxist-Leninist proclamations on "what went wrong" in the Soviet Union, my personal ideas have certainly moved from that mainstream (which, is relatively recluse in the political scene – so perhaps 'mainstream' is even too complimentary).
Most of you probably know that, given the amount of questions I pose, I certainly have a very flimsy understanding of Marxism and the methodology it uses – so please, feel free to criticize (WITHOUT HEGELIAN OBFUSCATIONS!) anything I am incorrect about – I'd like to, of course, refine my understanding. Without further ado:
My general understanding is that socialism generally speaking refers to any movement seeking to supplant capitalism in favor of a regime based on social ownership and management of the means of production. In the more puritanical Marxist conception, it seems to be generally synonymous with communism (or: lower phase communism for Lenin and the Ortho-Marxists). Communism can refer to scientific socialist theory, the movement to establish communism, or the society itself (a classless, and consequently stateless, post-monetary, etc., society). Hopefully my understanding is so-far so-good.
It is on "capitalism" and state capitalism where it gets tricky. Many RevLefters here tend to have varying views of capitalism, socialism, the the space in between them. Some, for an example, have said that a society can only be capitalist, or socialist – that there is no in-between transitory economy. Others have said that the economy, corresponding to the political nature of the proletarian dictatorship, will be one where both the law of value and the law of planning coincide – with the latter being dominant and gradually eclipsing over the law of value. I find the first proposition to be asinine: if there is no transitive nature between modes of production, between capitalism and communism in this case, then it would imply that we can only have one or the other and, consequently, we will arrive at one of two conclusions:
a) that initially, under the proletarian dictatorship, where we will still see money, exchange, and elements of private ownership, we have a communist mode of production(!)
(b) that we have said elements, but this is still a capitalist economy under control of the proletarian state.
"a" requires no explanation for the short-sightedness it implies, but accepting "b" is equally problematic: this would mean that not only does state-capitalism reign as the economy under the proletarian dictatorship initially, but also that the transition from state-capitalism to full communism would have to be abrupt and sudden (if we accept the idea that there is no in between or transitive phase where both modes of production coincide).
Because of such a problematic conclusion, I think it's significantly more accurate to state the following: that the proletarian regime will take control and management over all capital – the banks, the factories, the farms, etc. Given that even Marx highlights in Gotha the fact that the proletarian dictatorship (and even lower-stage communism!) will feature the "birthmarks of capitalism," such as money, exchange, and distribution according to contribution, we can surely say that the prevailing mode of production under the proletarian dictatorship will initially be state-capitalist – i.e., where the state commands and subjugates capital.
But within this state-ownership of capital lies the germ for communist society, and corresponding to the gradual withering away of the state, so too will the law of value give way to the law of planning – in other words, state-capitalism will gradually (as in, they will coexist) give way to the communistic mode of life. To me, this is not unthinkable – feudal relations obviously coexisted (in some places, still coexist) with capitalism. I do not see why the same will not happen between (state) capitalism and communism.
Concretely, when we're talking about the actual implications of what this transition between the modes of production will amount to, I envision it being that there will be no real managerial differences between state-capitalism and communism. It is obvious, to me, that society, which commands capital in the former, will oversee and command production in-kind in the latter. Perhaps this could be done via computing technology, or a congress of regional delegates, who knows.
Regardless, the important factor I'm trying to stress is related to another post of mine (http://http://www.revleft.com/vb/there-any-difference-t194931/index.html?p=2863181) before – that the only real, qualitative difference between state-capitalism and communism will be the absence of value, wages, money, etc., in the latter.
So that sums it up. I'm not trying to be some special snowflake and make "muh own ideology" up to feel like a theoretician – but I also do not know if I agree with other explanations on this, and I'm not sure what mine would be labeled as.
Tell me where I'm wrong and why, please – I'm going through a bit of an ideological crisis after being disappointed with what looked like a promising explanation by Bordiga and the Italian Left.
Most of you probably know that, given the amount of questions I pose, I certainly have a very flimsy understanding of Marxism and the methodology it uses – so please, feel free to criticize (WITHOUT HEGELIAN OBFUSCATIONS!) anything I am incorrect about – I'd like to, of course, refine my understanding. Without further ado:
My general understanding is that socialism generally speaking refers to any movement seeking to supplant capitalism in favor of a regime based on social ownership and management of the means of production. In the more puritanical Marxist conception, it seems to be generally synonymous with communism (or: lower phase communism for Lenin and the Ortho-Marxists). Communism can refer to scientific socialist theory, the movement to establish communism, or the society itself (a classless, and consequently stateless, post-monetary, etc., society). Hopefully my understanding is so-far so-good.
It is on "capitalism" and state capitalism where it gets tricky. Many RevLefters here tend to have varying views of capitalism, socialism, the the space in between them. Some, for an example, have said that a society can only be capitalist, or socialist – that there is no in-between transitory economy. Others have said that the economy, corresponding to the political nature of the proletarian dictatorship, will be one where both the law of value and the law of planning coincide – with the latter being dominant and gradually eclipsing over the law of value. I find the first proposition to be asinine: if there is no transitive nature between modes of production, between capitalism and communism in this case, then it would imply that we can only have one or the other and, consequently, we will arrive at one of two conclusions:
a) that initially, under the proletarian dictatorship, where we will still see money, exchange, and elements of private ownership, we have a communist mode of production(!)
(b) that we have said elements, but this is still a capitalist economy under control of the proletarian state.
"a" requires no explanation for the short-sightedness it implies, but accepting "b" is equally problematic: this would mean that not only does state-capitalism reign as the economy under the proletarian dictatorship initially, but also that the transition from state-capitalism to full communism would have to be abrupt and sudden (if we accept the idea that there is no in between or transitive phase where both modes of production coincide).
Because of such a problematic conclusion, I think it's significantly more accurate to state the following: that the proletarian regime will take control and management over all capital – the banks, the factories, the farms, etc. Given that even Marx highlights in Gotha the fact that the proletarian dictatorship (and even lower-stage communism!) will feature the "birthmarks of capitalism," such as money, exchange, and distribution according to contribution, we can surely say that the prevailing mode of production under the proletarian dictatorship will initially be state-capitalist – i.e., where the state commands and subjugates capital.
But within this state-ownership of capital lies the germ for communist society, and corresponding to the gradual withering away of the state, so too will the law of value give way to the law of planning – in other words, state-capitalism will gradually (as in, they will coexist) give way to the communistic mode of life. To me, this is not unthinkable – feudal relations obviously coexisted (in some places, still coexist) with capitalism. I do not see why the same will not happen between (state) capitalism and communism.
Concretely, when we're talking about the actual implications of what this transition between the modes of production will amount to, I envision it being that there will be no real managerial differences between state-capitalism and communism. It is obvious, to me, that society, which commands capital in the former, will oversee and command production in-kind in the latter. Perhaps this could be done via computing technology, or a congress of regional delegates, who knows.
Regardless, the important factor I'm trying to stress is related to another post of mine (http://http://www.revleft.com/vb/there-any-difference-t194931/index.html?p=2863181) before – that the only real, qualitative difference between state-capitalism and communism will be the absence of value, wages, money, etc., in the latter.
So that sums it up. I'm not trying to be some special snowflake and make "muh own ideology" up to feel like a theoretician – but I also do not know if I agree with other explanations on this, and I'm not sure what mine would be labeled as.
Tell me where I'm wrong and why, please – I'm going through a bit of an ideological crisis after being disappointed with what looked like a promising explanation by Bordiga and the Italian Left.