BITW434
31st March 2015, 20:28
Okay quick question here
I know that the growth of capitalism in Germany had commenced much earlier than the turn of the 20th century, but would it be somewhat acceptable to argue in my History coursework that the events that transpired in Germany in 1918 signified the completion of the process of bourgeois revolution?
Would I be right to argue that there was a clash of interests between the autocratic rule of the nobility (I read somewhere that the Junkers still held a reasonable amount of power even in the 1900s) and the insurgent bourgeoisie, which culminated in the German Revolution of 1918 and the abolition of the monarchy and nobility?
While I'm not completely ignorant on the subject, my knowledge of German history before 1933 isn't ridiculously great so if any of you could offer some assistance it would be much appreciated! :thumbup1:
I know that the growth of capitalism in Germany had commenced much earlier than the turn of the 20th century, but would it be somewhat acceptable to argue in my History coursework that the events that transpired in Germany in 1918 signified the completion of the process of bourgeois revolution?
Would I be right to argue that there was a clash of interests between the autocratic rule of the nobility (I read somewhere that the Junkers still held a reasonable amount of power even in the 1900s) and the insurgent bourgeoisie, which culminated in the German Revolution of 1918 and the abolition of the monarchy and nobility?
While I'm not completely ignorant on the subject, my knowledge of German history before 1933 isn't ridiculously great so if any of you could offer some assistance it would be much appreciated! :thumbup1: