View Full Version : Does historical materialism contradict exploitation?
Jacob Cliff
25th February 2015, 22:32
If Marx rejected metaphysics and was a materialist, then wouldn't that negate exploitation? It would mean there is no good or bad inherently, and the definition of exploitation is unfair (bad) treatment
Guardia Rossa
25th February 2015, 23:58
It was profitable to the Bourgeoisie and a unprofitable to the Proletariat?
Marx didn't pointed out exploitation as a revolutionary christian (by way of thinking, assuming things are bad because someone is causing them purposely) would, saying "that bourgeois is a bad person, he exploits the proletariat!!1! Revolution!1!!"
Marx said something like "The proletariat is being exploited by the bourgeoisie, this will lead to the proletariat crushing the bourgeoisie in a revolution and estabilishing a proletariat state. This is shown in my historical materialism, and is going to happend accordingly to the LTPRF (Law of the Tendency of the Profit Rates to Fall), because then exploitation will incrase."
Exploitation is a material, true thing, it is not a excuse of sorts to explain something that you can't explain.
I can't explain it well, english ain't my mother language and I'm new to Marx, but I hope I answered your question.
#FF0000
26th February 2015, 00:25
If Marx rejected metaphysics and was a materialist, then wouldn't that negate exploitation? It would mean there is no good or bad inherently, and the definition of exploitation is unfair (bad) treatment
That isn't what Marx means when he talks about exploitation. Putting it in the most basic terms possible, Exploitation in Marx's terms happens when workers do not receive in accordance to their work or need. When workers today are paid, they are paid in wages that account for a portion of the value of their labor. Hence, workers are exploited.
tuwix
26th February 2015, 05:40
If Marx rejected metaphysics and was a materialist, then wouldn't that negate exploitation? It would mean there is no good or bad inherently, and the definition of exploitation is unfair (bad) treatment
Marx was materialist, but he has never rejected a morality and ethics. And exploitation was unethical in his opinion. And I don't that there is any metaphysics in morality end ethics.
LuÃs Henrique
26th February 2015, 13:20
If Marx rejected metaphysics and was a materialist, then wouldn't that negate exploitation? It would mean there is no good or bad inherently, and the definition of exploitation is unfair (bad) treatment
Exploitation is the systematic transference of wealth from one part to another.
I don't see why we would need metaphysics to realise that wealth is being transfered from John Doe to Moneybags McScrooge.
Luís Henrique
Powered by vBulletin® Version 4.2.5 Copyright © 2020 vBulletin Solutions Inc. All rights reserved.