The Intransigent Faction
22nd June 2014, 01:55
I've been trying to grapple with something today.
I understand the criticisms of the theory of "labour aristocracy" and the "three worlds model". Sure, workers in the West are exploited, too, and there are people who live in squalid or terrible conditions (tent cities, for instance, or cases like Attawapiskat). Also, sure, empirically speaking it hasn't been demonstrated that profits from exploitation in the third-world are used to literally "subsidize" first-world living standards by translating said profits into workers' wages and benefits (after all, capitalists would keep those profits in the absence of pressure from workers).
That said, I've been taught that at least part of the explanation for the lack of "development" of certain other countries' economies is Western-based multinational corporations' activities. They, apparently, foster these countries' dependency on industries that benefit said corporations, and dependency is both an effect and a cause perpetuating continued dependence. Is there not some degree of truth to this? If so, then it would seem to me that 'first-world' living standards are in this way certainly reliant on especially intense exploitation of the 'third-world'.
So, how much of a role do Western multinationals really play in perpetuating the cheap labour market that allows the sale of cheap goods in the West, and if it is a significant role, how can we deny that the West's higher (average) standard of living is directly related to worse living standards elsewhere? Thanks.
I understand the criticisms of the theory of "labour aristocracy" and the "three worlds model". Sure, workers in the West are exploited, too, and there are people who live in squalid or terrible conditions (tent cities, for instance, or cases like Attawapiskat). Also, sure, empirically speaking it hasn't been demonstrated that profits from exploitation in the third-world are used to literally "subsidize" first-world living standards by translating said profits into workers' wages and benefits (after all, capitalists would keep those profits in the absence of pressure from workers).
That said, I've been taught that at least part of the explanation for the lack of "development" of certain other countries' economies is Western-based multinational corporations' activities. They, apparently, foster these countries' dependency on industries that benefit said corporations, and dependency is both an effect and a cause perpetuating continued dependence. Is there not some degree of truth to this? If so, then it would seem to me that 'first-world' living standards are in this way certainly reliant on especially intense exploitation of the 'third-world'.
So, how much of a role do Western multinationals really play in perpetuating the cheap labour market that allows the sale of cheap goods in the West, and if it is a significant role, how can we deny that the West's higher (average) standard of living is directly related to worse living standards elsewhere? Thanks.