Faceless
26th January 2004, 21:33
A serious question that I would like to raise on my Marxist theory. It is pretty dodgy.
It concerncs the labour theory of value (LTV).
The way I see it is that those who use the subjective theory of value would comment that the value of a commodity is not determined by labour input. Often the example used is that if I'm hungry and see a chocolate bar in a shop it is appealing to me having a "higher use value" but I resist, have dinner and then return. It now has a lower use value. But a typical Marxist response, to my knowledge is that the price stays the same, not changing because I have eaten. The neoclassical model fails to explain WHY the value of the chocolate bar is and was 50p, altering only relative to inflation. The "exchange value" is inherent it seems. It alters relative to labour input as I have come to understand and as more of it (the commodity) can be produced with less labour, the price goes down.
But I come unstuck at explaining the water-diamond paradox. So why is it that the value of a diamond is do high yet to produce it the labour input is very low. I am hoping that there is someone here to discuss this cornerstone of Marxist economics. What is it in the rarity of the diamond that gives it such a value. Does its prettiness alter anything? A rotten egg is rare but I don't want any. An industrial diamond has a much lower value than the cut diamond but is put to better use. If diamonds were abundant they would be as valuable cut as glass.
I find it hard to believe that the subjective theory of value can explain this value paradox for all its other shortcomings. Is this covered by Marxists yet covered up by apologists or a real flaw.
I'm aware that many don't care but even though I'll keep fighting it would be comforting to know that it will happen one day regardless. The revolution that is.
It concerncs the labour theory of value (LTV).
The way I see it is that those who use the subjective theory of value would comment that the value of a commodity is not determined by labour input. Often the example used is that if I'm hungry and see a chocolate bar in a shop it is appealing to me having a "higher use value" but I resist, have dinner and then return. It now has a lower use value. But a typical Marxist response, to my knowledge is that the price stays the same, not changing because I have eaten. The neoclassical model fails to explain WHY the value of the chocolate bar is and was 50p, altering only relative to inflation. The "exchange value" is inherent it seems. It alters relative to labour input as I have come to understand and as more of it (the commodity) can be produced with less labour, the price goes down.
But I come unstuck at explaining the water-diamond paradox. So why is it that the value of a diamond is do high yet to produce it the labour input is very low. I am hoping that there is someone here to discuss this cornerstone of Marxist economics. What is it in the rarity of the diamond that gives it such a value. Does its prettiness alter anything? A rotten egg is rare but I don't want any. An industrial diamond has a much lower value than the cut diamond but is put to better use. If diamonds were abundant they would be as valuable cut as glass.
I find it hard to believe that the subjective theory of value can explain this value paradox for all its other shortcomings. Is this covered by Marxists yet covered up by apologists or a real flaw.
I'm aware that many don't care but even though I'll keep fighting it would be comforting to know that it will happen one day regardless. The revolution that is.