The Capital - a question on wages & instruments of production

[a_ok]

I'm reading the Capital at the moment. And can't figure out this.

In case of the yarn and linen example, the price of the wear and tear of instruments is included in the price of the commodity, but what happens in the capitalist mode of production?

Is the price of wear and tear of the machinery logically supposed to be excluded from the wage of the worker? Or is it part of constant capital and does not anyhow participate in wages?

[Comrade #138672]

Is the price of wear and tear of the machinery logically supposed to be excluded from the wage of the worker? Or is it part of constant capital and does not anyhow participate in wages?Correct, it is constant capital, and, therefore, separate from the variable capital (wages).

There are two different types of constant capital: fixed capital and fluid capital. The machinery that is gradually consumed in the production process, by its wear and tear, should be considered fixed capital, because it is relatively "fixed" and its value only enters the end-product gradually. However, when the product is fully consumed (like yarn is consumed in the production process to produce linen), it is considered fluid capital, because of the "fluid" transfer of its value to the end-product.