Was there ever a dotp in China?

[Fourth Internationalist]

Most of us here believe at some point there was a dotp in Russia before it degenerated back into capitalism. However, was there ever a point where China was a dotp and then degenerated back into capitalism? Why or why not?

[Conscript]

Russia was supposed to be an example of the advanced, conscious proletariat leading the peasantry, a ddotpp. China was neither that or a dotp. It was pretty much the bourgeois revolution stalin was looking for.

[G4b3n]

The Chinese revolution had petty bourgeois elements but how could it not? It was focused primarily around the agrarian peasantry, i.e the vast majority of china.
To put it simply, there was no proletariat in which to elevate to the ruling class so no, there was no DOTP.

From reading Mao, I have concluded the major aims of the revolution were as follows:

Liberation for the oppressed minority nationalities
establishment of a class conscious Marxian leadership
Confiscate and redistribute feudal land and abolish the remnants of the feudal system
And most important of all - Land to the tillers

[connoros]

It was pretty much the bourgeois revolution stalin was looking for.

I love how people here just Stalin-bait for no reason.

Anyway, no, there was never a dictatorship of the proletariat in China because the revolution was largely agrarian and was allied with the national bourgeoisie against the comprador class. What China has now is a "democratic dictatorship" of class collaboration, at least in theory.

[Conscript]

...no reason? Really?

It's a fact stalin was looking for some national bourgeois revolution that rejected imperialist influence, it was seen as a path to national liberation and readyness for socialism. He looked for it in the KMT, it was really in Mao, especially the 'anti-imperialist' part.