Skyhilist
20th June 2013, 18:01
So quick question about the distinction between private and personal property.
Would something that contributes to property value, like say, someone's front yard, be considered private property or would it be considered personal property?
The reason I ask is that I know that of course if it's considered private property then the idea is to abolish it being private and make it something that is commonly owned. I was just reading something though from a different perspective though and they were trying to say, first of all that say, someone's yard, would be considered private property, and second of all that it's be a bad idea to make it commonly owned. The logic behind it was something along the lines of "what incentive do I have to take care of the land around my house if I don't even have ownership of it?"
Another thing also came to mind when I was thinking about this. When I was about 6 or 7 years old, there was a time where some teenage hooligans slid (after a rain) down a hill through my family's yard and completely wrecked it. It was all muddy and most of the grass was gone. Anyways basically, they ruined the yard completely to make a long story short. But since my parents obviously owned the yard they had the authority to tell the kids that they had to replant all the grass. It would seem as though if my parents hadn't controlled the lawn to begin with, the kids who ruined it wouldn't really have any incentive to help fix it. Obviously this is a more trivial example, but I'm sure you can see what I'm getting at. If the land, including people's lawns, were to be privately owned, would there be a way to prevent things like destruction of those yards by others, littering, etc.? Or at least would there be a way under communism that the people living in houses directly adjacent to such land could deal with such issues as effectively as they can now by saying "I own this land and so you can't be here"?
Would something that contributes to property value, like say, someone's front yard, be considered private property or would it be considered personal property?
The reason I ask is that I know that of course if it's considered private property then the idea is to abolish it being private and make it something that is commonly owned. I was just reading something though from a different perspective though and they were trying to say, first of all that say, someone's yard, would be considered private property, and second of all that it's be a bad idea to make it commonly owned. The logic behind it was something along the lines of "what incentive do I have to take care of the land around my house if I don't even have ownership of it?"
Another thing also came to mind when I was thinking about this. When I was about 6 or 7 years old, there was a time where some teenage hooligans slid (after a rain) down a hill through my family's yard and completely wrecked it. It was all muddy and most of the grass was gone. Anyways basically, they ruined the yard completely to make a long story short. But since my parents obviously owned the yard they had the authority to tell the kids that they had to replant all the grass. It would seem as though if my parents hadn't controlled the lawn to begin with, the kids who ruined it wouldn't really have any incentive to help fix it. Obviously this is a more trivial example, but I'm sure you can see what I'm getting at. If the land, including people's lawns, were to be privately owned, would there be a way to prevent things like destruction of those yards by others, littering, etc.? Or at least would there be a way under communism that the people living in houses directly adjacent to such land could deal with such issues as effectively as they can now by saying "I own this land and so you can't be here"?