Lowtech
10th January 2013, 20:47
we know that one individual can provide for himself and for many others,
for the sake of argument, lets suppose this limit of physical productivity is:
1 provider can support 8 nonproductive/nonworking individuals, including himself in the form of consumption.
then, lets look at a "rich" or plutocratic individual who by definition consumes more than he produces:
1 rich person; his consumption (income) alone is equal to 8 or more nonproductive/nonworking individuals, his consumption is so massive, he cannot labor enough to offset his consumption, i.e. he cannot provide for himself, let alone for anyone else.
we can observe that a rich person's consumption negates the value of his labor (if any), and makes himself mathematically equivalent to dozens if not thousands of non-contributing individuals.
in a sense, we could describe this as negative productivity, where consumption supersedes contribution.
for the sake of argument, lets suppose this limit of physical productivity is:
1 provider can support 8 nonproductive/nonworking individuals, including himself in the form of consumption.
then, lets look at a "rich" or plutocratic individual who by definition consumes more than he produces:
1 rich person; his consumption (income) alone is equal to 8 or more nonproductive/nonworking individuals, his consumption is so massive, he cannot labor enough to offset his consumption, i.e. he cannot provide for himself, let alone for anyone else.
we can observe that a rich person's consumption negates the value of his labor (if any), and makes himself mathematically equivalent to dozens if not thousands of non-contributing individuals.
in a sense, we could describe this as negative productivity, where consumption supersedes contribution.