TheOneWhoKnocks
3rd January 2013, 15:24
So, Marx's assertion of the tendency of the rate of profit to fall is an exceptionally contentious aspect of Marxist political economy. From what I understand, the argument is that the need for individual capitalists to maximize productivity forces them to increase investment in capital relative to labor, so the cost of constant capital (e.g. means of production) increases while the amount of labor power (and thus the value produced by labor power) decreases because of the gains in productivity. But Marx also identifies several tendencies that can counteract the falling rate of profit, such as increases in the rate of exploitation, decreases in the cost of constant capital, and monopolization, among many others. So the law of declining profit only holds true when none of the countervailing tendencies are taking place.
Considering how many qualifications are necessary for the theory to be correct, I'm unsure that it is necessary for us to engage in that debate. Marx's point in developing that theory was to show that capital is limited by itself, which he already had demonstrated elsewhere, such as in his analysis of overproduction.
Considering how many qualifications are necessary for the theory to be correct, I'm unsure that it is necessary for us to engage in that debate. Marx's point in developing that theory was to show that capital is limited by itself, which he already had demonstrated elsewhere, such as in his analysis of overproduction.