Hermes
8th November 2012, 19:37
Sorry for the probably obvious question (again), but could someone explain what exactly the logical conclusions of each would be, and how they differ from each other? I've been trying to read more philosophy recently, but almost everyone I start reading is a reaction to someone else, so I go back and read them, so on and so forth.
To me, at least, they would seem to be practically the same. 'Organic' seems to imply that results can vary, but isn't it at least theoretically possible to predict what outcome an organic process will take (given enough knowledge of that process)?
If it helps at all, the question arose when reading an introduction to Hegel, and contrasting him with Spinoza and Kant.
To me, at least, they would seem to be practically the same. 'Organic' seems to imply that results can vary, but isn't it at least theoretically possible to predict what outcome an organic process will take (given enough knowledge of that process)?
If it helps at all, the question arose when reading an introduction to Hegel, and contrasting him with Spinoza and Kant.