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Blanquist
18th April 2012, 04:46
Eastern European countries where called the countries of 'peoples democracy'

but the 'demo' in democracy means people, so its 'peoples people rule'

Didn't any ideologue realize how stupid it sounds?

Ostrinski
18th April 2012, 04:56
Yeah it's redundant

Vyacheslav Brolotov
18th April 2012, 05:02
They needed to differentiate themselves from bourgeois democracies. They also wanted to demonstrate that they were democracies of the proletariat, peasantry, intelligentsia, etc. Basically, democracies of the "people" in a more Marxist sense of the word than what capitalists would consider it to be.

Ostrinski
18th April 2012, 05:04
I think the use of the word "people" is bourgeois in nature, as it blurrs class lines and implies that there can be any mutuality in class interest.

Vyacheslav Brolotov
18th April 2012, 05:08
I think the use of the word "people" is bourgeois in nature, as it blurrs class lines and implies that there can be any mutuality in class interest.

Yeah, but the thing is that the proletariat was not the only class in those nations. There were some bourgeoisie, unfortunately. They were business owners and etc.

Ostrinski
18th April 2012, 05:09
Yeah, but the thing is that the proletariat was not the only class in those nations. There were some bourgeoisie, unfortunately. They were business owners and etc.The dotp is a democracy of the proletariat, though, not a joint democracy with other classes.

Vyacheslav Brolotov
18th April 2012, 05:10
The dotp is a democracy of the proletariat, though, not a joint democracy with other classes.

Yeah, I know, I am just saying what was happening then.

NewLeft
18th April 2012, 05:10
Yeah, but the thing is that the proletariat was not the only class in those nations. There were some bourgeoisie, unfortunately. They were business owners and etc.
You're right, the people's liberation was a union of the proletariat and the peasants.

Vyacheslav Brolotov
18th April 2012, 05:14
Actually, now that I look at it, it has more to do with my first post than the one about the bourgeoisie.

Trap Queen Voxxy
18th April 2012, 06:14
I think the use of the word "people" is bourgeois in nature, as it blurrs class lines and implies that there can be any mutuality in class interest.

^This and if you add "teh pplz," to anything it by proxy makes it proletarian in nature, as in, the People's Banana Republic of China.

Ismail
20th April 2012, 16:30
Eastern European countries where called the countries of 'peoples democracy'

but the 'demo' in democracy means people, so its 'peoples people rule'

Didn't any ideologue realize how stupid it sounds?I doubt the great mass of workers and peasants in Eastern Europe, the DPRK and Vietnam (which were all considered People's Democracies) particularly cared about linguistic semantics. The point is that in Marxist theory there's proletarian democracy and bourgeois democracy. People's Democracy doesn't really signify a form of class democracy; it had a broader meaning. It was considered a unique form of the dictatorship of the proletariat. Stalin likened it to the democratic republics Marx and Engels spoke about, and contrasted it to the Soviet form of the proletarian dictatorship.

The Hong Se Sun
23rd April 2012, 17:46
When I think of "People's democracy" I think of (excuse the cheezyness) a democracy of, by and for the people ("the people" meaning the greater masses which equals the workers because Ive never heard of a nation where most the people were bourgeoisie. Unless you ask the MTWist in which case all first worlders are bourgeoisie)