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View Full Version : Reasons for the early defeats of RKKA in the early days of the GPW?



tir1944
24th November 2011, 00:50
I'd like to learn more about the reason for the poor performance of the Red Army during the early days of fascist aggression.
Millions fell into captivity,scores of equipment were lost...
Why did all this happen? Who was responsible?
I read about the Army being in the process or re-organization at the time,however was this the single most important factor in those early defeats?
Thanks.

Искра
24th November 2011, 00:51
Stalin purged officers, they were not prepared and they didn't have weapon.

Michael Carroll
24th November 2011, 00:53
there moral was low because of Stalin's purges, the germans can very quick and blitzkerig was no macth for the weak soviet defense

AntifaZG
24th November 2011, 01:01
Stalin purged officers, they were not prepared and they didn't have weapon.

I don't think so.

Strength of the opposing forces on the
Soviet Western border. June 22, 1941

Tanks: GER: 4,171 USSR: 15,687

Planes: GER 4,389 USSR 11,537

Source: Russian intelligence

Geiseric
24th November 2011, 04:14
Well the distance between poland and the U.S.S.R. being shortened a few thousand miles didn't help but the Red Army wasn't even mobilised to my knowlege, all of those tanks would have theoretically been in storage that were on the front. however was the red army mobilised on the eastern border? Because it seems like Stalin allowed the germans to invade, or at least the soviet state's actions in the years before the invasion by the fascists sure made it easy... i'm wondering why stalin didn't invade as soon as the nazis took power or started expanding into eastern europe.

tir1944
24th November 2011, 04:19
I won't comment on some of the claims brought out here (i believe many of them are plain wrong but i'll let more knowledgeable memebers refute them with sources),but i'd like to address this issue.


i'm wondering why stalin didn't invade as soon as the nazis took power or started expanding into eastern europe.
The only way to get to Germany was through Poland.Now,had Stalin invaded Poland that could have resulted in the UK,France,possible the US and Japan declaring war in retaliation.
But the real issue is:can and should a revolution be "spread" to other nation "on the top of bayonettes"? Does a socialist country have the right to invade and subjugate a country that does not have a revolutionary situation?

khad
24th November 2011, 04:21
But the real issue is:can and should a revolution be "spread" to other nation "on the top of bayonettes"? Does a socialist country have the right to invade and subjugate a country that does not have a revolutionary situation?
If you're talking about the annexation of Czechoslovakia, Poland got a piece.

tir1944
24th November 2011, 04:24
If you're talking about the annexation of Czechoslovakia, Poland got a piece.
Yes,i know.Shows just how idiotic the Polish leadership was,to make such a horrible "PR" mistake all for a provincial railroad junction.:laugh:
However i was talking about the USSR invading Germany(and Poland in the process) after Hitler took power,as Syd suggested.

Geiseric
24th November 2011, 04:37
Of course germany was in a revolutionary situation! The KPD was growing into a mass party, and the only way the nazis were able to get power was by destroying the leftist parties and assassinating their leaders. i guess it was in as much a revolutionary situation as italy before the fascist putsch, however the nazis kinda marched with the comintern party against the social democrats so I guess a nazi government was inevitable right? (sarcasm)

tir1944
24th November 2011, 04:41
Sir,you said," i'm wondering why stalin didn't invade as soon as the nazis took power or started expanding into eastern europe."
But the time the Nazis took power there was no real revolutionary situation anymore,isn't it so?
The question of KPD and NSDAP should be moved into a new thread,i suggest you start it...

ComradeOm
24th November 2011, 10:03
The Germans did have an advantage in training, quality and leadership but these alone can not explain the sheer magnitude of the Soviet defeat. Most of the standing Red Army was effectively wiped out in a matter of weeks.. Essentially there are four reasons for this that are derived from one. The four are:

1) Lack of experienced officers. In 1941 most Red Army commanders were serving two ranks above their competency level. They were simply unable to adequately control the forces under their command

2) Organisational flux. After 1937 the Red Army threw out much of its highly developed operational doctrine and retreated to a more infantry orientated approach in a series of reforms. Another bout of reforms was undertaken after the Finland fiasco. In 1941 the Red Army was highly disorganised by these constant changes

3) Terrible deployments. Napoleon is reported to have once accused his generals of "wanting to stop smugglers, not defend France" after they presented him with a defence plan that lined their armies up along the border. In 1941 the Soviet deployments saw the majority of the active formations arrayed within 30 miles of the border. This makes absolutely no sense given that the Red Army was supposed to be a mechanised counter-attacking force and it gifted the Germans with a perfect opportunity to encircle and destroy the linear Soviet forces on a massive scale

4) Complete strategic and tactical surprise. There is no excuse for this. Despite constant warnings from the frontline and intelligence, the Soviet command refused to believe that an invasion was imminent until it was too late. Even worse, Moscow insisted on a series of restrictive directives that hampered the ability of frontline commanders to move to battle readiness. The Red Army was simply caught hopelessly off guard for a war that it knew was coming

And of course all the above reasons come down to one man: Stalin. The first two are direct products of the Purges while Stalin played a personal role in the deployment and rules of engagement that led to the latter two. Had he listened to his generals (and some, such as Kirponos, did put up a good fight against the invaders by covertly ignoring Moscow's directives) instead of killing them then the Soviet Union would not be placed at the disadvantage of losing over three million men in a matter of weeks

I go into more details in this thread (http://www.revleft.com/vb/molotov-ribbentrop-pact-t164614/index2.html) and here (http://www.revleft.com/vb/russian-state-archive-t141122/index.html?p=1855319)