16th_hop
15th November 2011, 18:54
From my understanding, to have a true Communist society (dare I say almost utopian one, without the intellectual baggage that comes along with that word) that Marx envisioned as the final part of proletariat political evolution, I have been lead to believe that all people will need to contribute to society in some way.
The questions that I have are:
a) Is anyone who wants to unfairly take/steal from the proletariats considered a bourgeois despite their income or background?
b) How do Marx’s theories account for lazy/ greedy people that will take more than they put in?
c) Would a global communist government let someone who refused to work to starve? (or maybe put him in a mental institution?)
d) How do anarchists and Communists generally deal with the problem of people who want to take advantage of the system?
Cheers,
16th_hop
P.S
On another note, does anyone have any idea how the Oil Embargo of 1973 occurred despite supreme American influence over most of the OPEC countries. I have gleaned from Wikipedia that the Shah of Iran (installed by the CIA) was infuriated by American decisions to raise the price of wheat and petrochemicals. Other explanations point to the destabilization of the world’s currency by Nixon’s ultimate dropping of the Gold standard and negation of the Breton-Woods agreement. Your thoughts would be appreciated.
The questions that I have are:
a) Is anyone who wants to unfairly take/steal from the proletariats considered a bourgeois despite their income or background?
b) How do Marx’s theories account for lazy/ greedy people that will take more than they put in?
c) Would a global communist government let someone who refused to work to starve? (or maybe put him in a mental institution?)
d) How do anarchists and Communists generally deal with the problem of people who want to take advantage of the system?
Cheers,
16th_hop
P.S
On another note, does anyone have any idea how the Oil Embargo of 1973 occurred despite supreme American influence over most of the OPEC countries. I have gleaned from Wikipedia that the Shah of Iran (installed by the CIA) was infuriated by American decisions to raise the price of wheat and petrochemicals. Other explanations point to the destabilization of the world’s currency by Nixon’s ultimate dropping of the Gold standard and negation of the Breton-Woods agreement. Your thoughts would be appreciated.