Red.Jack.Philly
23rd October 2011, 21:59
Hello. This is my first post on this forum. A comrade and I are trying to wrap our heads around the so-called "Cambridge Capital Controversy (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cambridge_capital_controversy)." While he's a little more well-versed than I am in economics, I'm going to speak for myself here.
Here's my background: I've taken two college economics courses (macro and micro.) I've read quite a bit on Marxian econ and have a decent grasp on the topic. I've heard many Marxist criticisms of marginalism, but from what others have told me and from what I've gathered by reading about the topic, the most devastating critique of it comes from Sraffa in his The Production of Commodities by Means of Commodities. In it, he shows that bourgeois economics falls apart on its own terms.
The problem for my comrade and I is that we don't really understand the argument. It seems like it's very technical and we haven't been able to find an accessible explaination of it (Wikipedia hasn't helped either.) The best we've done is this Chris Harman article Called "The Crisis of Bourgeois Economics." (http://www.marxists.org/archive/harman/1996/06/bourgecon.htm)
Here's an excerpt:
The radical Keynesians at Cambridge took up Sraffa’s point, insisting that the neo-classical economists’ elaborate algebraic calculations and geometrical curves rested on a tautology as meaningless as that which says, ‘An egg is an egg.’ The neo-classicists said profits and interest were ‘rewards’ for ‘abstention’, ‘waiting’ or ‘production time’, and were equal to the increase in value (‘marginal product’) produced by extra capital. So the rate of profit was marginal product divided by the value of the total capital. But how was the value of that capital to be measured? It could not be arrived at by adding together the different physical measurements of goods that made up the means and materials of production (tons of iron, gallons of oil, kilowatts of electricity, etc.). In fact, it depended, according to marginalist theory, on the value of the marginal product – the same thing that the measurement of profit depended on. In that case, there was no way of arriving at a figure for the ratio of the profit to the capital, that is, at the rate of profit. Or, to put it another way, the rate of profit and interest depended on the amount of capital, and the amount of capital depended on the rate of profit and interest.
Could anyone please either:
1.) Provide a detailed, yet accessible explanation of the "Cambridge Capital Controversy" and the implications of Sraffa's work for marginalism...
or
2.) Provide a work which gives a detailed, yet accessible explanation to people with my background.
Thanks!
Comradely,
Red Jack
Here's my background: I've taken two college economics courses (macro and micro.) I've read quite a bit on Marxian econ and have a decent grasp on the topic. I've heard many Marxist criticisms of marginalism, but from what others have told me and from what I've gathered by reading about the topic, the most devastating critique of it comes from Sraffa in his The Production of Commodities by Means of Commodities. In it, he shows that bourgeois economics falls apart on its own terms.
The problem for my comrade and I is that we don't really understand the argument. It seems like it's very technical and we haven't been able to find an accessible explaination of it (Wikipedia hasn't helped either.) The best we've done is this Chris Harman article Called "The Crisis of Bourgeois Economics." (http://www.marxists.org/archive/harman/1996/06/bourgecon.htm)
Here's an excerpt:
The radical Keynesians at Cambridge took up Sraffa’s point, insisting that the neo-classical economists’ elaborate algebraic calculations and geometrical curves rested on a tautology as meaningless as that which says, ‘An egg is an egg.’ The neo-classicists said profits and interest were ‘rewards’ for ‘abstention’, ‘waiting’ or ‘production time’, and were equal to the increase in value (‘marginal product’) produced by extra capital. So the rate of profit was marginal product divided by the value of the total capital. But how was the value of that capital to be measured? It could not be arrived at by adding together the different physical measurements of goods that made up the means and materials of production (tons of iron, gallons of oil, kilowatts of electricity, etc.). In fact, it depended, according to marginalist theory, on the value of the marginal product – the same thing that the measurement of profit depended on. In that case, there was no way of arriving at a figure for the ratio of the profit to the capital, that is, at the rate of profit. Or, to put it another way, the rate of profit and interest depended on the amount of capital, and the amount of capital depended on the rate of profit and interest.
Could anyone please either:
1.) Provide a detailed, yet accessible explanation of the "Cambridge Capital Controversy" and the implications of Sraffa's work for marginalism...
or
2.) Provide a work which gives a detailed, yet accessible explanation to people with my background.
Thanks!
Comradely,
Red Jack