Log in

View Full Version : Bismarck and Lincoln



Martin Blank
13th October 2011, 00:39
NOTE: This was a recent post on the New York Times blog about the Civil War, "Disunion". I thought it raised an interesting issue, especially because I think it explains some of the position Marx and Engels had in the later years of their lives. I'd like to hear thoughts and comments on this from other forum members. I am including the full article because the Times is a subscription site now. -- Miles


Why Bismarck Loved Lincoln

By KENNETH WEISBRODE

We usually think of the Civil War as a uniquely American event, a war unlike any other fought in the Western world during the 19th century. And of course that’s true, strictly speaking: no other country saw itself split in two over slavery. But that’s not the only way to think of the war. Put a different way, the Civil War was just one of several wars for national unification — including fighting in Italy and Germany — on both sides of the Atlantic during the mid-19th century.

While countries like Britain and France were concentrating on expansion through colonization, the United States, Germany and others were focused inward, developing — intentionally or not — the centralizing powers that have defined the modern state ever since. What seems like a particularly American event was really part of a much larger, and much more significant, historical trend.

As a war of national unification, the Civil War represented a sharp historical break, a moment of crisis that would define the country’s course for decades to come. Beforehand, the notions of national unification and expansion had been indivisible: just 15 years prior, the United States defeated Mexico in a bloody war that brought vast territories under occupation and destroyed the delicate balance between slave and free states. Some people predicted the worst. “The United States will conquer Mexico,” claimed Ralph Waldo Emerson in 1846, “but it will be as the man swallows the arsenic which brings him down in turn. Mexico will poison us.” Ulysses S. Grant went so far as to declare the Civil War divine punishment for the Mexican conflict.

Indeed, the Mexican War fueled an ongoing debate about how large the country should get. Canada, or parts of Canada, had been sought by eager expansionists virtually since the two parts of British North America went their separate ways in 1776; spreading the plantation economy to Mexico and beyond — the so-called purple dream — had long animated the Southern imagination.

Even as the Civil War began, Mexico continued to fester and tempt interventionists. It announced in mid-July 1861 that it could not service its debts, having just ended its own civil war (called the War of the Reform), and so suspended payments to its European creditors. This was not unusual, but this time the country’s creditors did more than reiterate demands for payment: the British, French and Spanish governments joined forces in October to compel Mexico to pay; by the end of the year the city of Vera Cruz was occupied.

The British and the Spanish soon reversed course, but Napoleon III of France, in league with Mexican reactionaries, persevered: he sought nothing less than a new Catholic empire in the Western Hemisphere under his auspices (thence the term “Latin” America). French troops occupied Mexico City and installed a Hapsburg archduke, Maximilian, as emperor. He lasted until 1867 when, having lost the war against his opponents and even the backing of Napoleon, he was executed by a Mexican firing squad.

Here, then, was a major challenge to Washington, an act of aggression in the Western Hemisphere by European countries and thus a direct violation of the Monroe Doctrine. Some in Abraham Lincoln’s administration may have urged him to strike, to invade Mexico and push the Europeans out before they dug in. But Lincoln rejected any such advice.

In part it was a matter of expediency; the Union had more pressing matters to its south to deal with. But it was also a resetting of the course of the American state. As Lincoln saw it, “older” powers like Britain, France and Russia could go on to see imperial archipelagos flourish, but “younger” states should opt for geographic and political consolidation and centralization at home. Lincoln thus rebuffed the idea of conquering and colonizing Canadians and Mexicans in favor of building a new nation to the Pacific. It’s no surprise that Lincoln would prefer this path: as a Midwesterner, his mental map extended more horizontally than vertically — east to west rather than north to south. But first he had to stop the American South from going its own way.

Lincoln wasn’t alone in prioritizing centralization. Giuseppe Garibaldi and his fellow campaigners for Italy’s unification — which had just been proclaimed in March — would have understood this, as would nationalists (sometimes called “unitarios”) elsewhere in the Western Hemisphere, notably in Argentina, Colombia and Canada, whose confederation debate got going at about the same time. As a matter of fact, Lincoln authorized a commission for Garibaldi in the Union Army. Garibaldi turned it down — evidently because freeing the slaves was not yet sufficiently high on the list of the Union’s war aims — yet Lincoln’s offer underscores the fellowship between America’s war of unification and those taking place in other parts of the world.

Perhaps no one was more in tune with Lincoln than Otto von Bismarck, the minister-president of Prussia. Beginning in 1862, Bismarck unified Germany, but he explicitly rejected the idea of a “Großdeutschland,” or “Greater Germany,” incorporating Austria, in favor of a “kleindeutsche Lösung,” or “Little German Solution,” that preferred centralization over maximum territorial expansion. This may have been one reason why, after the Civil War ended, Bismarck reportedly sounded out Washington on an alliance. It made sense: Europe’s rising industrial and military power seeking common cause with an American counterpart that seemed destined for the same.

Unifying states needed more than just will; they needed propitious events and conditions. In Germany’s case, it was the Crimean War — triggered, incidentally, by Napoleon III, following his 1851 coup — that made unification possible by putting an end to the Anglo-Russian condominium underpinning the European, and therefore global, balance of power. In the United States it was the country’s “free” security (provided in large measure by the British Navy) that allowed for its territorial expansion and consolidation.

And so the old order gave way to a new, contested one on both sides of the Atlantic; unification would come in both places by force. If the Crimean War had set the stage for the wars of unification in Germany and Italy, and the Mexican War did so for the war of unification in the United States, then it’s worth asking: if there had been no Crimean War, might there still have been an American Civil War? Probably so; civil wars by definition happen largely for internal reasons. But without the conflict in Europe, the American war would not have been the nationalist achievement of world-historical import, as Lincoln, Bismarck and later generations understood it.

In other words, the Civil War — as significant as it is for American history — is even more important when viewed through a comparative, transatlantic lens. The fight for internal unification rather than expansion meant that never again would the United States seek to conquer and annex its neighbors. It would, along with Bismarck’s Germany, be a new kind of state: centralized, rationalized and mobilized to dominate the coming century.


Kenneth Weisbrode is a writer and historian. His latest book is “The Atlantic Century (http://www.amazon.com/Atlantic-Century-Generations-Extraordinary-Diplomats/dp/0306818469).”

Ocean Seal
13th October 2011, 00:53
An interesting article. Although, in my opinion the invasion of Mexico didn't sediment our path towards a civil war, but rather slowed it down for a while. I disagree with Marx on this part. I think had we not invaded Mexico the South would have found itself smaller and more isolated as a slave territory. I think that within a few years we would have had the civil war, if it were not for the invasion into Mexico.

Grenzer
13th October 2011, 01:12
Fascinating article, thanks for posting it Miles.

As a historian somewhat well versed in the American Civil War, even more so. I was not aware of the connection between Lincoln and Bismarck. I have to disagree with RedBrother, the Mexican-American war hastened the dawn of the Civil War. Particularly with the annexation of Texas, the balance between Slave States and Free was shattered. The Civil War was inevitable, to any marxist historian this should be extremely obvious. The contradictions between the northern bourgeois and southern semi-feudal landholders made conflict inevitable, and this is evident from the moment of the Nations founding as evidenced by the conflict between the Federalists and Anti-Federalists.

I have about a dozen ancestors who fought in that war, evenly distributed between both sides. Lincoln should have just abolished the power of the states as a distinct unit of political power.

The Federal system of government was useful at the nation's founding. Because of the lack of efficient transportation and communication, it became necessary to have semi-autonomous states as the American frontier expanded. We can still see remnants of this mentality today, as seen in the electoral college, which was designed for such realities. With the advent of steam power and trains, it became apparent that the original federal system was becoming obsolete and that centralization was both logical and necessary for the growing nation.

CornetJoyce
13th October 2011, 02:29
Some minor points:

Lincoln did indeed have concerns more pressing than Mexico, but the anti-Maximilian forces were allowed sanctuary on the American side of the border.

Bismark was building up for his war on Bonaparte, so there was an obvious reason for him to align himself with Bonaparte's New World foes.

Garibaldi fought for the unification of Italy, i.e: expulsion of the Austrians and French (and the Papacy), but "centralization" was hardly his central concern. His response to Lincoln's offer of command was indeed "yes, if I can free the slaves," while dismissing the preservation of the union. He equated John Brown with Jesus and Brown's soldiers used a training manual prepared by a former Garibaldi volunteer.

Besides, he also fought for the Rio Grande Republic in its attempt to separate from the Empire of Brazil; he fought for Uruguay's successful resistance against Argentina; he refused to fight for Bonaparte in 1870 but fought for the Republic when Bonaparte fell, and then turned down command of the Paris Commune's National Guard only because he could no longer walk.

Die Neue Zeit
13th October 2011, 02:32
Before a revolutionary period came about in 1900s Germany, it made sense to back Germany's non-colonial conflicts, even though it was an imperialist state (say, a hypothetical WWI breaking out before the 1900s, thus before a revolutionary period). This is class-strugglist defencism: not exactly proletocratic defencism or even revolutionary(-period) defencism, but a good start.

Jose Gracchus
13th October 2011, 02:39
Why should socialists have supported Bismarck's wars? Are you serious? Can we ban you yet?

Die Neue Zeit
13th October 2011, 02:45
Marx and especially Engels did:

http://www.revleft.com/vb/stalins-accomplishments-t159493/index.html?p=2259259

Jose Gracchus
13th October 2011, 02:47
Why is it you mechanically take politics and strategy from the 19th c. and presume it must be just as programmatically relevant today where the real domination of capital has been consolidated worldwide?

Besides, its not just a matter of 'correct lines'; an international workers' movement presupposes proletarian internationalism. How can you have workers' solidarity where the one imperial state's workers and their organization are tailing their bourgeoisie in fighting another power (and killing lots of its workers). What do you expect the other workers' organization to hold as its line? How the fuck could you possibly have an international organization where lines like this were proposed? This isn't a problem for M-E, who were working the 19th c. where consolidated bourgeois state could still be formed. That's simply not the case today.

Die Neue Zeit
13th October 2011, 02:49
Is it a revolutionary period, or isn't it? That's the only political question that matters (since different periods require different tactics).


Besides, its not just a matter of 'correct lines'; an international workers' movement presupposes proletarian internationalism. How can you have workers' solidarity where the German workers and their organization are tailing their nascent bourgeoisie and the Junkers in fighting the Austrians (and killing lots of Austrian workers). What do you expect the other workers' organization to hold as its line? How the fuck could you possibly have an international organization where lines like this were proposed?

"Internationalism" is bankrupt. There are now only the not-mutually-exclusive Transnationalism and Workers' Pan-Nationalism (such as a "Euro-Worker" identity) (http://www.revleft.com/vb/mapping-alternative-europe-t161873/index.html?p=2247808).

To the specific point: the answer lies in a question. What does "Germany" mean in "The whole of Germany shall be declared a single and indivisible republic" (http://www.marxists.org/archive/marx/works/1848/03/24.htm)?

Have you considered the possibility that Austria-Hungary had the interest of not seeing a unified "Little German Solution"?

RED DAVE
13th October 2011, 03:00
Is it a revolutionary period, or isn't it? That's the only political question that matters (since different periods require different tactics).Uhh, class alignments count as well as anyone studying Nepal has found out.

RED DAVE

Jose Gracchus
13th October 2011, 03:05
Is it a revolutionary period, or isn't it? That's the only political question that matters (since different periods require different tactics).

First of all, Austria-Prussia isn't like modern wars. Both were at the time dynastic and feudal constructs; there were German nationalists in Austria who wanted both states dissolved in favor of a Grossdeutschland (Greater Germany) national state.

Today I cannot imagine how this would ever work. 1.) When was the last time two mature bourgeois powers went to war? 2.) When was it anything like the context of the Austro-Prussian War? 3.) How could any international workers' organization exist or spread--and to someone who fetishizes big bureaucratic mass parties and 'institutionalization' like you, this should matter--when different national sections are going all-in for social patriotism?

Quite frankly, I cannot understand why the BA thinks that any deviation on the line of abortion is a political crime that sends you straight to OI, but apparently going in with the pro-war left in World War I is somehow no offense against communist principles.

Die Neue Zeit
13th October 2011, 03:10
First of all, Austria-Prussia isn't like modern wars. Both were at the time dynastic and feudal constructs; there were German nationalists in Austria who wanted both states dissolved in favor of a Grossdeutschland (Greater Germany) national state.

Again, I asked above as I added: were Marx and Engels in favour of Grossdeutschland in 1848?


How could any international workers' organization exist or spread--and to someone who fetishizes big bureaucratic mass parties and 'institutionalization' like you, this should matter--when different national sections are going all-in for social patriotism?

IIRC, Social Democracy in Austria-Hungary wasn't as mature as in Imperial Germany. Alternative culture in Germany was popularized only when Lassalle-Schweitzer and Bebel-Liebknecht were butting heads with each other, so I can only guess how further behind Austria's working class was on the institutionalization learning curve.


but apparently going in with the pro-war left in World War I is somehow no offense against communist principles.

I'm against WWI. :confused:

Jose Gracchus
13th October 2011, 03:13
"Internationalism" is bankrupt. There are now only the not-mutually-exclusive Transnationalism and Workers' Pan-Nationalism (such as a "Euro-Worker" identity) (http://www.revleft.com/vb/mapping-alternative-europe-t161873/index.html?p=2247808).

One has historical identity. The other is a purely fantastical abstraction you've conjured up. Guess which I'm going to go with.


To the specific point: the answer lies in a question. What does "Germany" mean in "The whole of Germany shall be declared a single and indivisible republic" (http://www.marxists.org/archive/marx/works/1848/03/24.htm)?

Who gives a fuck? There are no analogies to 1850s Germany for the working-class to tackle as a problem of program today.


Have you considered the possibility that Austria-Hungary had the interest of not seeing a unified "Little German Solution"?

Care to give any possible analogy to this absurd tangent to modern day socialist politics?

Virtually all of your politics are based on the premise that no essential change has occurred on the field of class struggle since 1850, and therefore all manner of crap may be proposed to 'improve' the bourgeois states. Today we live in the real, not formal domination of capital. There are no bourgeois states which need be 'consolidated' in order to produce a new mature proletariat. We are not living in the rise of capitalism. No national wars objectively accelerate the process toward proletarian revolution today.

Die Neue Zeit
13th October 2011, 03:25
One has historical identity. The other is a purely fantastical abstraction you've conjured up. Guess which I'm going to go with.

If anything else, "internationalism" has been an abstraction except during those situations that Hobsbawm derides as something like the Roman Catholic Church (i.e., the Comintern or the more centralized periods of the original Socialist International).

Bordiga's transnationalism is hardly a "purely fantastical abstraction."

Neither is Workers Pan-Nationalism, given the broader history of pan-nationalist projects.


Who gives a fuck? There are no analogies to 1850s Germany for the working-class to tackle as a problem of program today.

Well, this is a history thread on Bismarck and... Lincoln. There may be the contemporary subject of the proposed Eurasian Union or a more politically unified version of it (i.e., "USSR 2.0"), but that's a separate thread.


Care to give any possible analogy to this absurd tangent to modern day socialist politics?

This is a History thread. If Austria-Hungary fought against German unification like the French did, then they should have been deterred.


Virtually all of your politics are based on the premise that no essential change has occurred on the field of class struggle since 1850, and therefore all manner of crap may be proposed to 'improve' the bourgeois states. Today we live in the real, not formal domination of capital. There are no bourgeois states which need be 'consolidated' in order to produce a new mature proletariat. We are not living in the rise of capitalism. No national wars objectively accelerate the process toward proletarian revolution today.

Of course a lot of things have changed. The aforementioned breakdown of "internationalism" is one key change, and one of the two descendants is necessary to unify Europe's working class.

Makaru
17th October 2011, 18:00
"In other words, the Civil War — as significant as it is for American history — is even more important when viewed through a comparative, transatlantic lens. The fight for internal unification rather than expansion meant that never again would the United States seek to conquer and annex its neighbors. It would, along with Bismarck’s Germany, be a new kind of state: centralized, rationalized and mobilized to dominate the coming century."

Um, is there any reason why the author didn't notice this little kink in his tidy theory? Maybe Cuba doesn't count as a neighbor for the United States, but I believe France counts as one for Germany. Unless I misunderstood, but he seems to be suggesting throughout the article that the U.S. and Germany developed their internal unity in a similar fashion, eschewing grand imperialism for a more rational imperialism. And that the resulting states were similar in how they conducted themselves, only they weren't.

I wonder why he glazed over the obvious fact that his hypothesis, which relies on Germany to suggest that the United States was fighting a war of national unification, completely fails when it comes to determining what that means?

Martin Blank
22nd October 2011, 21:22
Um, is there any reason why the author didn't notice this little kink in his tidy theory? Maybe Cuba doesn't count as a neighbor for the United States, but I believe France counts as one for Germany. Unless I misunderstood, but he seems to be suggesting throughout the article that the U.S. and Germany developed their internal unity in a similar fashion, eschewing grand imperialism for a more rational imperialism. And that the resulting states were similar in how they conducted themselves, only they weren't.

I wonder why he glazed over the obvious fact that his hypothesis, which relies on Germany to suggest that the United States was fighting a war of national unification, completely fails when it comes to determining what that means?

I think his theory rests on the full phrase: "conquer and annex". Certainly, the U.S. conquered a lot of countries in succeeding years (especially during the Spanish-American War of 1898), but none of them were actually annexed -- i.e., made a constituent part of the United States. On the other side, Hawaii, which was annexed by the U.S. in 1898 (before the Spanish-American War), was not conquered per se; annexationists, made up of U.S. businessmen and residents, overthrew the Hawaiian queen in 1893. If Puerto Rico was ever to be made a state, it would be, technically speaking, the first instance of the U.S. conquering and annexing a foreign territory since the Mexican War.

As for Germany, I don't think you can count the Nazi period in the argument, since it is considered exceptional to the question -- the Nazi regime being outside of the political parameters of the discussion. The annexation of Alcase-Lorraine after the Franco-Prussian War in 1870 was considered an act of reparations, and part of the signing of the peace accords. As well, Germany's actions in World War I cannot be seen as "conquer and annex", since none of the territories conquered by the Kaiser's army were to be absorbed into the Reich.

Jose Gracchus
22nd October 2011, 21:38
Considerable territory occupied by the Kaiser's army were definitely to be annexed to the German Reich.

http://img208.imageshack.us/img208/504/waraimsinwesterneurope5sw.png

http://img117.imageshack.us/img117/4489/waraimsineasterneurope9ev.png

In The Coming of the Third Reich, Richard J. Evans suggests even broader annexations (especially in the East) were endorsed by the High Command by 1916-1917. Much of the Nazi expansionist program really was presaged by late German war aims, which took considerably racialist and punitive qualities as the war dragged on.

As for the overall discussion, I think Germany is a unique case; as the lagging major imperialist power and late industrializer, once the entire planet had been formally integrated into the world market and world accumulation, it percieved itself as possessing an insufficient imperial zone for its expansion. This was common to all powers, but felt most acutely by Germany in both World Wars (along with Italy and Japan as runners-up).