Red Economist
7th October 2011, 15:18
My question is regarding specifically this quote from Lenin:
"In its first phase, or first stage, communism cannot as yet be fully ripe economically and entirely free from traditions or remnants of capitalism. Hence, the interesting phenomenon that communism in its first phase retains "the narrow horizion of bourgeois right" (Marx). Of course, bourgeois right in regard to the distribution of articles of consumption inevitably presupposes the existence of the bourgeois state, for right is nothing without an apparatus capable of enforcing the observance of the standards of right.
It follows that under communism there remains for a time, not only bourgeos right, but even the bourgeois state without the bourgeoisie!" (Lenin, The State and Revolution, 4. The Higher Phase of Communist Society).[Note: Bourgeois Right means equal legal right, but inequal economic means to exercise it].
This would imply that the first phase of communism, there is a communist basis (property ownership) and a Capitalist superstructure (state). Whilst I am quite familiar with Marxist Analyisis, this seems simply to be pushing 'internal contradictions' too far.
Lenin's quote is important for Trotskyists because it is the basis of Trotsky's theory that the Soviet Union was a 'Degenerated Worker's State'.
"A Bourgeois state without a bourgeoisie" proved inconsistent with geniune Soviet democracy. The dual function of the state could not but affect its structure. Experience revealed what theory was unable clearly to forsee. If for the defence of socialized property against bourgeois counter-revolution a "state of the armed workers" was fully adequate, it was a very different matter to regulate inequalities in the sphere of consumption. Those deprived of property are not inclined to create and defend it. The majority cannot concern itself with the privileges of the minority. For the defence of "bougeois law" the workers state was compelled to create a "bourgeois" type of instrument- that is, the same old gendarme, although in a new uniform." (Trotsky, The Revolution Betrayed, Chapter III, 3. The Dual Character of the Workers State).Trotsky's analyisis (whilst widely disputed and debated) however never questioned the necessity of going through the phase of having a 'bourgeois state' under communism.
I am inclined to challange this analyisis and argue that there must also be a a specifically 'proletarian state' to reconcile this contradiction. This would however lead very radical conclusions along the lines of the 'historical bankcruptcy of the world-wide communist movement' as a movement for a 'bourgeois state without the bourgeoisie'.
Given that my understanding of dialectics is still pretty shakey, I am open to anyone who is confident enough to offer an 'expert' opinion to My question:
Would a New Socialist Revolution HAVE to use a Bourgeois State or can a Revolution develop based on a higher form (or 'Proletarian') state?
"In its first phase, or first stage, communism cannot as yet be fully ripe economically and entirely free from traditions or remnants of capitalism. Hence, the interesting phenomenon that communism in its first phase retains "the narrow horizion of bourgeois right" (Marx). Of course, bourgeois right in regard to the distribution of articles of consumption inevitably presupposes the existence of the bourgeois state, for right is nothing without an apparatus capable of enforcing the observance of the standards of right.
It follows that under communism there remains for a time, not only bourgeos right, but even the bourgeois state without the bourgeoisie!" (Lenin, The State and Revolution, 4. The Higher Phase of Communist Society).[Note: Bourgeois Right means equal legal right, but inequal economic means to exercise it].
This would imply that the first phase of communism, there is a communist basis (property ownership) and a Capitalist superstructure (state). Whilst I am quite familiar with Marxist Analyisis, this seems simply to be pushing 'internal contradictions' too far.
Lenin's quote is important for Trotskyists because it is the basis of Trotsky's theory that the Soviet Union was a 'Degenerated Worker's State'.
"A Bourgeois state without a bourgeoisie" proved inconsistent with geniune Soviet democracy. The dual function of the state could not but affect its structure. Experience revealed what theory was unable clearly to forsee. If for the defence of socialized property against bourgeois counter-revolution a "state of the armed workers" was fully adequate, it was a very different matter to regulate inequalities in the sphere of consumption. Those deprived of property are not inclined to create and defend it. The majority cannot concern itself with the privileges of the minority. For the defence of "bougeois law" the workers state was compelled to create a "bourgeois" type of instrument- that is, the same old gendarme, although in a new uniform." (Trotsky, The Revolution Betrayed, Chapter III, 3. The Dual Character of the Workers State).Trotsky's analyisis (whilst widely disputed and debated) however never questioned the necessity of going through the phase of having a 'bourgeois state' under communism.
I am inclined to challange this analyisis and argue that there must also be a a specifically 'proletarian state' to reconcile this contradiction. This would however lead very radical conclusions along the lines of the 'historical bankcruptcy of the world-wide communist movement' as a movement for a 'bourgeois state without the bourgeoisie'.
Given that my understanding of dialectics is still pretty shakey, I am open to anyone who is confident enough to offer an 'expert' opinion to My question:
Would a New Socialist Revolution HAVE to use a Bourgeois State or can a Revolution develop based on a higher form (or 'Proletarian') state?