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Hate Is Art
29th October 2003, 14:38
im gonna sound pretty dumb but how is it pronounced and spelt? and what does it mean?

Invader Zim
29th October 2003, 16:10
Its pronounced bour-geoi-sie.

The bourgeoisie was a French sub class of the middle classes. It was the elite of the Middle classes the hugely wealthy factory owners, the class directly below the Aristocracy. They ran the revolution and overthrew the upper classes. Who fled to Britain in particular and where known as the Émigrés, in 1814 after the first fall of Bonaparte the Émigré's returned, and a bitter rivalry existed between the two groups for about 70-80 years. In which time 2 monarchies, one constitutional monarchy, an empire and a republic existed. By the end of the time the Émigrés/Aristocracy had lost all power practically, and the Bourgeoisie transformed into a neo-liberal group of capitalists similar to the ones who existed in Britain who believed in conserving the rights of the upper classes. The same lot we now call conservatives, the bourgeoisie is a non-existent dead class, forever to be part of the history books, some leftists who need to do their reading are falsely under the impression that all the upper classes are bourgeoisie, they are wrong.

redstar2000
29th October 2003, 16:43
Why such pedantry?

Pretty much everyone on the left now uses "bourgeoisie" and "capitalist class" interchangeably.

If the intent is to show your "superiority" to Marx and Engels...well, that's most amusing, to be sure.

And if not that, then why?

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A site about communist ideas

Invader Zim
29th October 2003, 16:53
Originally posted by [email protected] 29 2003, 06:43 PM
Why such pedantry?

Pretty much everyone on the left now uses "bourgeoisie" and "capitalist class" interchangeably.

If the intent is to show your "superiority" to Marx and Engels...well, that's most amusing, to be sure.

And if not that, then why?

http://anarchist-action.org/forums/images/smiles/redstar.gif

The RedStar2000 Papers (http://www.anarchist-action.org/marxists/redstar2000/)
A site about communist ideas
Why such pedantry?


He asked a question, I gave him an answer, and considering I wrote a 5 page essay on this subject for my history, I consider that paragraph to be highly consise.

Pretty much everyone on the left now uses "bourgeoisie" and "capitalist class" interchangeably.

Pretty much everyone is wrong then, just because "everyone" else does something wrong, why must I follow suit?

If the intent is to show your "superiority" to Marx and Engels...well, that's most amusing, to be sure.


And how do you work that out? Is it because Marx and Engles Used this out dated term, well if you haddent noticed, they were writting before, the term became obsolite.

And if not that, then why?

Why not? After all its not me being inaccurate, why shouldn't I tell it like it is when a question is asked? Or would you prefer that I lie, so as not to appear "pedantic"?

redstar2000
30th October 2003, 00:52
Pretty much everyone is wrong then, just because "everyone" else does something wrong, why must I follow suit?

In principle, I don't disagree with that approach, of course.

I just don't understand why you pick this issue to "take your stand" in defense of historically accurate definitions?

What "harm" is done by following the Marxist tradition in this instance? How is anyone "misled" by using the words interchangeably? Is a "technical" understanding of the details of 18th and 19th century French class structure "required" to effectively analyze modern class structure?

Or do you propose to demonstrate that Marx and Engels are "obsolete" because they describe the rise of a class that "by verbal definition" no longer technically exists?

You've tried this bit of shallow word-play before...without success.

Why not talk about something real?

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The RedStar2000 Papers (http://www.anarchist-action.org/marxists/redstar2000/)
A site about communist ideas

Saint-Just
30th October 2003, 12:20
Yes Enigma, there are no Marxists around who think the same class structure that existed when Marx was alive exists today. There have been Marxists writing post WWII about modern society and class structure. One of the most famous is an analysis of American society which points to the existence of a military-industrial complex, in which an elite of industry, politics etc. in American society exists. And that this elite has created a society where everything is ultimately done in their military and industrial interests. The rest of American society holds a false consciousness similar to the one Marx talked about the proletariat having. Things such as education and so forth are analysed to say that they are often tools of this elite and are responsible for creating this false consciousness.

It is very much similar to Marx's idea that the economic base dictates the structure and system of society around it.

Invader Zim
30th October 2003, 12:35
Originally posted by [email protected] 30 2003, 02:52 AM

Pretty much everyone is wrong then, just because "everyone" else does something wrong, why must I follow suit?

In principle, I don't disagree with that approach, of course.

I just don't understand why you pick this issue to "take your stand" in defense of historically accurate definitions?

What "harm" is done by following the Marxist tradition in this instance? How is anyone "misled" by using the words interchangeably? Is a "technical" understanding of the details of 18th and 19th century French class structure "required" to effectively analyze modern class structure?

Or do you propose to demonstrate that Marx and Engels are "obsolete" because they describe the rise of a class that "by verbal definition" no longer technically exists?

You've tried this bit of shallow word-play before...without success.

Why not talk about something real?

http://anarchist-action.org/forums/images/smiles/redstar.gif

The RedStar2000 Papers (http://www.anarchist-action.org/marxists/redstar2000/)
A site about communist ideas

In principle, I don't disagree with that approach, of course.

Then why make such a bother about it, the answer is clear; you just want to score "points" off me. Well Redstar, I am not inclined to participate in your little game. I will answer your statements however as best I can, but if I feel that this will degenerate into a petty squabble, then I will ignore you and this thread.

I just don't understand why you pick this issue to "take your stand" in defense of historically accurate definitions?

I saw the question requiring a rather precise answer, and gave a concise answer fitting the nature of the question (something you are guilty of as well I add), apart from my answer to your previous point I see no reason to your "interrogation".

What "harm" is done by following the Marxist tradition in this instance? How is anyone "misled" by using the words interchangeably? Is a "technical" understanding of the details of 18th and 19th century French class structure "required" to effectively analyze modern class structure?

I suppose when you get right down to it, there is nothing specifically "harmful" about it. But when you really get right down to it, the reason is, its simple history, which I believe any socialist worth their salt should know. It is hardly technical; learning the history of the capitalist IMO should be of as much importance as learning the history of the Left. How can you effectively argue with a capitalist about the fundamental flaws of capitalism if you do not actually know how these flaws came into being?

Or do you propose to demonstrate that Marx and Engels are "obsolete" because they describe the rise of a class that "by verbal definition" no longer technically exists?

This one particular example would not demonstrate anything except that the language of Marx and the surrounding of Marx has changed so that the "enemy" of Marx is completely different. The basic principals of Marxism are still good, I would imagine that they always will be, but the external points such as how to achieve Marxism and "who is the enemy", are now fundamentally wrong.

You've tried this bit of shallow word-play before...without success.

Really? Well if people want to wallow in their ignorance, then that is their lookout. I realise that you personally follow Marx, to an extent which is greatly to be admired, and consider his words to be gospel; I would not expect you to change an entire lifetimes habits of "damning the bourgeoisie" even though there is no such thing. This is a prime example how Marx is not 100% correct about every thing relating to today, and should not be treated as gospel truth. It must be interpreted or even altered to fit modern society.

Why not talk about something real?

If you can define what is real and what is not.

Hate Is Art
30th October 2003, 14:11
thank you for the answer now stop squablling.

Invader Zim
30th October 2003, 15:15
Originally posted by Digital [email protected] 30 2003, 04:11 PM
thank you for the answer no stop squablling.
ohh god you havent seen me and redstar "squabble", this is actually by comparison a highly tame conversation.

Hate Is Art
30th October 2003, 15:19
are machine guns and flame throwers involved?

Invader Zim
30th October 2003, 15:23
Originally posted by Digital [email protected] 30 2003, 05:19 PM
are machine guns and flame throwers involved?
Metephorically yes. As well as atom bombs.